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七年级英语学科学情调研参考答案
第一部分 听力（共四节 满分30分）
1--5 CBBCA 6--10 BABCB 11--15 BABCA 16--20 BABCB
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解（共12小题，每小题2.5分，共30分）
21--23 CDA 24--27 CDAB 28--32 DBCAC
第二节 阅读六选五（共5小题，每小题2分，共10分）
33--37 CAEDB
第三节 标题匹配（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
38--42 EDACB
第三部分 语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
43--47 BDACB
第二节 完形填空（共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分）
48--52 DBDAB 53--55 BDB
第三节 词汇运用（共11小题；56-60题，每小题1分，61-66题, 每小题2分，满分17分）
56. drama 57. daily 58. biology 59. restaurant 60. choose 61. falls
62. to prepare 63. musical 64. them 65. teeth 66. mother’s
第四部分 写作（35分）
第一节 情境运用（10分）
1）每个句子表达完全准确，无语言错误，2分；
2）有错误但关键信息正确，1分；
3）词不达意，关键信息错误，0分
67. It’s/The cat is under the table.
68. How many kids/children do Tom and Mary have
69. What time/When does he usually take a shower
70. Is there a sports field in your school
71. I can make friends in a book club.
第二节 写作 （25分）
书面表达 评分标准：
（1）本题总分为25分，按5个档次给分。
（2）评分时，先根据学生写作的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
（3）评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
（4）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。
（5）如果书写较差，以致影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。
各档次的赋分区间和要求
第一档（21—25分）很好地完成了试题规定的任务。
覆盖所有内容要点；应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇；用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或基本没有语言错误；书写工整；字数符合要求。完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档（16—20分） 较好地完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉一、二个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富，但能满足任务的要求；句子较通顺、表达较清楚；有少量语言错误；书写工整；字数基本符合要求。达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档（11—15分）基本完成了试题规定的任务。
虽漏掉部分内容，但基本体现写作要点；应用的语言结构单一；句子不够通顺，行文不够连贯；语言错误较多；书写不够规范，字数不足。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档（6—10分）未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数不足50。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第五档（0—5分）未完成试题规定的任务。
未理解试题要求，明显遗漏大部分要点，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数严重不足。信息未能传达给读者。
Dear Future Me,
How are you Our school is making a time capsule today, and I want to write to you about my life now. All in all, my life now is happy but busy.
In my family, there are four people: my parents, my sister and me. My father works in a hospital. My mother teaches Chinese at a school. They are always busy, but we have dinner together every evening. At weekends, We often go hiking together. School life is busy and colorful. I have four classes in the morning and two in the afternoon. I have classes like math, science, and my favorite subject is art, so I join the art club. In the art club, I learn a lot. After school, I play basketball with my classmates. It helps me relax. My teachers and classmates are very kind and helpful, especially my English teacher, who always encourages me to speak up.
I wonder if your life will be different from now. Do you still love art Do you remember your old friends I hope you are happy and healthy.
Yours,
Present Me七年级英语学科学情调研
本试卷共8页，满分150分，考试时间120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名，准考证号等填写在答题卡和试卷的指定位置。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每个小题的答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听录音，在每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. Where is the dining hall B. Who is your class teacher C. How old are you
2. A. Lily’s mother is in Beijing now. B. Lily’s sister likes reading.
C. Lily’s brother lives in Beijing now.
3. A. The book is my sister’s. B. My sister has a book.
C. My sister wants to buy the book.
4. A. Bill has two balls. B. Bill has a basketball. C. Bill has two ping-pong bats.
5. A. My favourite sport is tennis. B. His father is a teacher. C. My grandpa likes fishing.
第二节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。
6. Who can play tennis
A. Tom. B. Mary. C. Sandy.
7. Who is Lucy
A. Bob’s new classmate. B. Bob’s sister. C. Bob’s new teacher.
8. What instrument can the boy play
A. The piano. B. The guitar. C. The violin.
9. Who often helps with the housework in Daniel’s family
A. His mother. B. His father. C. Daniel.
10. What can the girl do after school
A. Play computer games. B. Do her homework. C. Watch TV.
第三节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有5个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答问题的正确答案。每段对话读两遍。（听对话前，你将有40秒的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒的答题时间。）
11. How many students are there in Bill’s class
A. 14. B. 40. C. 44.
12. Who is Bill’s favorite teacher
A. Mr. Brown. B. Miss Smith. C. Mr. Green.
13. What’s Alice’s favorite subject
A. Math. B. Music. C. Science.
14. What club does Alice want to join
A. The art club. B. The math club. C. The music club.
15. When do they go to the club
A. After school. B．At weekends. C. In the middle of the day.
第四节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。短文读两遍。（听短文前，你将有40秒的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒的答题时间。）
16. What does Simon do at 7:30 in the morning
A. He has breakfast. B. He does morning exercises. C. He goes to school.
17. How does Simon go to school every day
A. By bike. B. On foot. C. By bus.
18. What lessons does Simon like best
A. Maths and English. B. Maths and Chinese. C. English and Art.
19. When does Simon go to the Football Club
A. On Monday and Tuesday. B. On Monday and Friday. C.On Monday and Wednesday
20. How long does Simon spend doing his homework every day
A. About half an hour. B. About an hour. C. About two hours.
第二部分 阅读（共三节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解 （共12小题；每题2.5分，满分30分）阅读下列短文,从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Do you know any special subjects at school Now let’s have a look at them in some countries.
My name is Frank. I’m from the UK. I have “Forest School” (丛林课程) on Monday afternoon. Ms. Brown takes us to the forest. We learn how to put up a tent and make a fire in the forest. On a family trip(旅行) in the forest, I help my parents make a fire. I’m so happy. The class helps me a lot.
Hi, I’m Gina. I am an American student. I have a folk dance class at school. It is on Wednesday morning. I think Ms. Smith is a good teacher. She tells us about the history and culture(文化) of dancing. I like her very much.
Hey, I’m Jack. I’m a 13 year old boy from Australia. Our school has surfing classes. But not everyone can do it. Today is Wednesday, so we can have the surfing class tomorrow morning. I study it for a long time. Now, I am good at it. Can you see the man in the picture He is my teacher Mr. Green.
21. What does Frank think of “Forest School”
A. It’s exciting. B. It’s boring. C. It’s helpful. D. It’s relaxing.
22. Which of the following is true
A. Jack has a surfing class on Wednesday.
B. Ms. Brown is Mary’s surfing teacher.
C. Frank is a student from America.
D. Gina can learn about the history and culture of dancing in Ms. Smith’s classes.
23. Who might be interested in this passage
A. Students. B. Doctors. C. Singers. D. Farmers.
B
Do you have a tidy desk or an untidy desk at home Do you want to keep your desk clean and tidy for a long time A tidy desk helps you find things easily and do things well. It is also helpful for your study. Doing these can help you with it.
First, only put things you need on your desk. For old books, you can put them in the bookcase. Get a box for small things you don’t need every day, you can put your pens and pencils in a pencil box.
Second, don’t put food or drinks on your desk, because they can make your desk dirty. Go to the kitchen when you want to eat.
Third, put important things next to you. Then it is easy for you to get them.
Fourth, clean your desk every day. If you do it every day, you can have a new day with a tidy room the next morning.
If you do the things, you can have a tidy and clean desk. Why not have a try now
24. How many tips (提示) can we get from the passage
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
25. What can’t you do if you want to have a tidy desk
A. Eat food in the kitchen. B. Get a box for small things.
C. Clean your desk every day. D. Put all of your things on your desk.
26. Why don’t we take food or drink on our desk Because it can ________.
A. make the desk not clean B. make the desk nice
C. find our things easily D. help us eat or drink easily
27. Who is the passage written for
A. Parents. B. Students. C. Teachers. D. Friends.
C
What is a smart home It is a house that uses technology to make life easier and safer. In a smart home, many things can work by themselves. For example, lights can turn on when you walk into a room. The air conditioner can start before you get home, so the house is cool on a hot day.
How does it work A smart home has a “brain”—usually a small computer or a voice assistant like Alexa or Siri. You can give orders with your voice or with an app on your phone. If you say, “Turn off the living room lights,” the lights will go off right away.
Many smart homes also have security (安全) systems. Cameras can watch the doors and windows. If someone tries to get in, the system will send a message to your phone. You can even see who is at the door without opening it.
But smart homes are not only about convenience (方便) and safety. They can also help save energy (能源). Smart thermostats (恒温器) can learn your habits and adjust the temperature （温度）when you are away. This saves electricity（电） and money. Smart gardens can water plants only when necessary.
Some people worry that smart homes are too expensive or difficult to use. But as technology improves, more families are starting to try it. Maybe in a few years, smart homes will be as common as smartphones.
28. What can a smart home do to make the house cool before you get home
A. Turn on the lights. B. Open the windows.
C. Lock the doors. D. Start the air conditioner.
29. How can you control things in a smart home
A. Through making telephone calls. B. By using your voice or a phone app.
C. By typing orders on a computer. D. By pressing buttons on the wall.
30. In Paragraph 4, what does the word “adjust” probably mean
A. forget B. break C. change D. study
31. What can we infer about smart homes from the passage
A. They are becoming more common. B. They are really easy for us to use.
C. They are only for rich people to use. D. They don’t use electricity at all.
32. What is the main idea of the passage
A. How people build smart homes. B. Why smart homes are popular.
C. What smart homes are and their uses. D. When smart homes are used in life.
第二节 阅读六选五（共5小题；每小题2分，共10分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项为
多余选项。
Everyone needs friends. Do you know how to make true friends 33
First, you have to decide who can become your friends. You can make friends with those who have the same interests as you. When friendship begins, you’d better plan activities that you’ll both enjoy. 34
Second, start a good talk. You can ask your new friends questions like these, “ 35 ” What’s your hobby ” “What do you do after school ” Then you will have a good relationship with your friends.
36
When your classmates are in trouble, offer as much help as possible. For example, you can lend a pen to your new classmate. You can also care for a classmate who doesn’t feel well.
Fourth, the best way to make true friends is being honest. You won’t feel comfortable when you lie to your friends. 37 That’s because you don’t want to hurt your friends’ feelings. But in most situations, you are expected to be honest with your friends.
第三节 标题匹配 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面五个语段，从给定的选项中选择一个最符合其主旨的标题，每个语段只对应一个最佳标题。
38. There are many kinds of clubs in the US middle schools. But homework clubs are popular now. More and more students spend their afternoons in the homework clubs. The US middle school students need a quiet place to study. But games, computers and TVs are all around them at home. So the homework club is just for them to do their homework. The club is quiet and it’s good for students to study.
39. Exercise is an important part of staying healthy. It is important to warm up before you exercise. You need to stretch (伸展) your legs, arms, back and neck before you do any difficult activities like running.
40. Do you often look at your smart phones Do you have tired eyes after looking at the screen for a long time Well, here is one way to keep your eyes healthy. It’s important to take regular (有规律的）breaks from watching a screen. Get up and take a 15-minute break at least once every two hours.
41. She is 13. Her first name is Alice and her last name is Green. She is from America. Pink is her favourite colour. She is in China now. She has two brothers, Larry and Jim. We often play tennis together after school.
42. When you meet your new classmates, don’t be shy. Introduce yourself to them. You can tell them your name and your hobbies. This can make your classmates feel that you want to make friends with them.
第三部分 语言运用 （共三节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
A: Hi, Steve! Let’s join a club. 43
B: Well, I’ve no idea.
A: Hmm. . . what can you do Can you play chess 44
B: No, I can’t play chess.
A: Hmm... do you like music
B: 45 And I can sing.
A: Great! Can you play the piano
B: No, I can’t. 46
A: Good! And I can play the violin. 47
B: Sounds great! Let’s go and join now.
43. A. Do you want to join the music club B. What club do you want to join
C. What can you do D. Can you sing
44. A. Can you draw B. I can play the guitar.
C. Do you want to join the sports club D. Do you want to join the chess club
45. A. Yes, I do. B. Yes, I can. C. No, I don’t. D. No, I can’t.
46. A. I can’t play the piano. B. But I can play chess.
C. But I can play the guitar. D. I can swim.
47. A. Let’s join the art club. B. Let’s join the music club.
C. I want to join the English club. D. I like music.
第二节 完形填空 （共8小题，每小题1分，满分8分）
阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
It’s Sunday today. Peter doesn’t go to school. Now he is free at home and he wants to play computer games, but his mother Mrs. Smith 48 him to do his Chinese homework first. Then he can do the things he likes. Peter isn’t 49 . He asks, “Mom, do you love me ”
Mrs. Smith says, “Yes, I do, my dear.”
“Then 50 don’t you let me play computer games It’s my hobby. Why can’t I do what I want ” Homework is important 51 boring. I like computer games, ” says Peter.
Mrs. Smith puts Peter’s 52 on the sofa and asks him, “Dear, do you love me ” Peter says, “Sure.”
Then Mrs. Smith says, “Great! Dear, I don’t want to do the things I don’t like and I don’t want to wash your clothes. These days, I fall in love with nature. I also want to 53 my weekend to hike. Why do you always ask me to wash your clothes You can play computer games after you wash 54 .”
Then Peter looks at all the clothes on the sofa and his face gets red. “Mom, It’s my 55 . I should help you with some housework at home. Let’s do it together. Then I’ll finish my homework. I love you.”
What a nice Peter! What a clever mother!
48. A. helps B. talks C. takes D. asks
49. A. tidy B. happy C. healthy D. free
50. A. when B. who C. how D. why
51. A. but B. because C. and D. so
52. A. books B. clothes C. games D. cards
53. A. get to know B. make use of C. work out D. talk about
54. A. it B. they C. its D. them
55. A. ability B. mistake C. routine D. weekend
第三节 词汇语法运用（共11小题；56-60题，每小题1分，61-66题, 每小题2分，满分17分）阅读下面句子，根据汉语提示或用括号内所给单词的正确形式完成句子。
56. Lin Hua can read with feeling, so he wants to join the _______(戏剧) club.
57. Do you know how different people’s _________(日常的) routines are
58. I have_________(生物学) on Tuesday afternoon.
59.There is a __________(餐馆) across from our school. Let’s have lunch there.
60. Our teacher can _________(选择) one of us to finish the work.
61. Tom is interested in books and he ________(fall) in love with them.
62. Linda hopes to study online __________(prepare)for the test next year.
63. What ________(music)instruments can your sister play
64. Where are my new glasses I can’t see ________(it).
65. Look, the baby has three ________（tooth）now.
66. My _________(mother) mother is my grandmother.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
第二节 作文（满分25分）
时光如流，你是否好奇一年后的自己会是什么模样？学校正在准备一个特别的 “时间胶囊”，将封存我们此刻的记忆与心愿，等待一年后再次开启。现在，请你提起笔，给一年后的自己写一封信吧,让未来的你读到它时，还能感受到此刻的温暖与憧憬。
内容包括：
1. 家庭生活（如家庭成员、周末习惯等）；
2. 学校生活（如课程、社团、老师同学等）；
3. 对未来的好奇和简单愿望。
写作要求：
1. 要点提示均须涉及，可适当增加内容；
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名、校名、地名；
3. 语句通顺，语意连贯，书写规范；
4. 词数100左右，首句已给出，不计入总词数。
Dear Future Me,
Our school is making a time capsule today, and I want to write to you about my life now. ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
yours,
Present Me

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