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全椒县2024~2025学年度第一学期七年级期末质量检测
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”(6页)和“答题卷”或“答题卡”(2页)两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s the boy’s favourite sport
A. B. C.
2. What instrument can Linda play
A. B. C.
3. When does Danny have IT class
A. On Saturday. B. On Friday. C. On Thursday.
4. Where is Mary from
A. America. B. China. C. Canada.
5. What does the girl want to be in the future
A. A singer. B. A writer. C. A scientist.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. What is the girl’s favourite subject
A. Art. B. Music. C. Maths.
7. Where is the art building
A. It’s behind the music hall.
B. It’s next to the music hall.
C. It’s across from the music hall.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. What colour is the pet dog
A. Brown. B. White. C. Black.
9. Whose photo is that
A. John’s. B. Mike’s. C. Lisa’s.
10. What does Lisa’s aunt like
A. Ping-pong balls. B. Books. C. Plants and flowers.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What subject does Alice teach(教)
A. Maths. B. English. C. Chinese.
12. What time does Alice get up
A. At 6:00 a.m. B. At 5:00 a.m. C. At 6:00 p.m.
13. Where does Alice have lunch
A. At school. B. At home. C. In the restaurant.
14. Who does Alice have dinner with
A. Her students. B. Other teachers. C. Her parents.
15. How does Alice feel every day
A. Bored. B. Special. C. Happy.
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Daniel’s new school
Playground It’s so 16 . He often plays with his friends on it.
Classrooms They’re 17 and bright(明亮的). His classroom is on the 18 floor(层)
Library It’s new and 19 . They often go there in the 20 .
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题，满分35分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
1. 以下哪个单词中划线部分发音与其他的不同？
A. put B. cup C. bus D. run
2. —Bob, your 15-year-old son is the same ________ as you.
—Yeah, children grow fast.
A. hobby B. name C. height D. class
3. We can ________ the beautiful nature on our hiking trips. It makes us feel happy.
A keep B. miss C. give D. discover
4. Boys and girls go to school ________ Monday to Friday every week.
A. on B. from C. at D. for
5. —How do you like art
—It’s very ________. It can help us develop a sense of beauty (培养美感).
A. free B. important C. different D. easy
6. —________ do you usually play basketball
—I usually play basketball before dinner.
A. What time B. When C. How often D. How
7. —Can you speak French
—_________ But I would like to learn.
A. Yes, I can. B. Yes, I do. C. No, I can’t. D. No, I don’t.
8. —Hello, Lisa! Are these your brother’s sports shoes
—No, they’re not ________.
A. hers B. mine C. yours D. his
9. — How do you usually celebrate birthday in your country
— We usually make a wish before _______ all the candles.
A. blowing out B. acting out C. working out D. taking out
10. —Happy New Year!
—________
A. Thank you! B. The same to you. C. No, thanks. D. Oh, dear!
VL 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
Spring (春天) is coming. You can do lots of great outdoor (户外) ____11____ in spring.
Take a ____12____ in the park. In spring, trees are green. And the weather (天气) is often ____13____. You can take a walk around the park or walk your dog ____14____ the lake. That will make you feel relaxed (放松的), and your dog will love you more.
Go for a bike trip. Riding is great exercise. It’s ____15____ to warm up (热身) before riding. It’s good for your ____16____. You can ride your bike around your city.
Visit a farm. In spring, you can ____17____ your family to a farm near your house. Kids can ____18____ the farm animals and learn about labor (劳动).
Sit out in the sun. The sunny weather makes ____19____ warm. Sometimes, you can ____20____ outdoor sports or just sit outside with a cup of hot tea. It is relaxing (放松的), isn’t it
11. A. activities B. subjects C. names D. questions
12. A. ride B. swim C. walk D. hike
13. A. fine B. long C. old D. smart
14. A. for B. by C. in D. with
15 A. important B. interesting C. different D. difficult
16. A. bike B. foot C. age D. body
17. A. find B. take C. study D. turn
18. A. play with B. sit down C. ask for D. put up
19. A. her B. him C. you D. it
20. A. make B. give C. help D. do
B
Hey, my name is Tony. I want to tell you about my school day.
Every day I get up ____21____ in the morning. At about 6:00, I brush my teeth and wash my hands and face. Then I go out for a walk and come back home after half a(n) ____22____. After that, I take a shower. It ____23____ me relaxed. At half past seven, I have breakfast with my family and then I help to ____24____ the table. After breakfast, I go to school. I have seven classes, ____25____ in the morning and three in the afternoon. Some of my classmates think history is ____26____, but I like it very much. I think it is a lot of fun. At about 12:00, I have ____27____ at school with my classmates. I eat Mapo tofu, and it’s my favorite ____28____.
I get home at four o’clock in the afternoon. First, I play games with my sister. She is really ____29____ and I always laugh a lot when playing with her. And then I have dinner with my family. After dinner, I do my ____30____. It takes me about an hour to finish it. After that, I play chess with my dad. I usually go to bed at about ten o’clock.
21. A. early B. late C. well D. only
22. A. day B. hour C. year D. month
23. A. does B. tells C. makes D. takes
24. A. buy B. get C. find D. clean
25. A. three B. four C. seven D. eight
26. A. boring B. interesting C. easy D. long
27. A. time B. breakfast C. lunch D. music
28. A. food B. picture C. number D. book
29. A. old B. busy C. free D. funny
30. A. school B. homework C. celebration D. instrument
Ⅶ. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
根据对话内容，从下面的方框中选择适当的选项补全对话。其中有两项是多余选项。
A: Hi! My name is Xiao Xiao. ____31____
B: Hi! I’m Li Xiang.
A: ____32____
B: Nice to meet you too. ____33____
A: I’m in Class 4, Grade 7. And you
B: I’m in Class 3, Grade 7.
A: ____34____
B: I’m eleven. How about you
A: I’m twelve. ____35____
B: I like playing the guitar
A: Oh, me too. We can play the guitar together.
A. Let’s be friends.
B. Nice to meet you.
C. How old are you
D. What’s your hobby
E. I’m great, thank you.
F. May I have your name
G. What class are you in
第三部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分，满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
Dear Ben, Come to my birthday party on Sunday. Please ask your sister to come, too. Can you also bring your football I can’t find mine. The birthday party is in our garden (花园). It begins at 3:00 pm. Tim
Dear Oliver, Please come to my birthday party on Saturday. Can you bring your running shoes We have a race (比赛). Mom says you don’t bring your dog. Sorry! The party begins at 3:00 pm. See you on Saturday. Tara
Dear Linda, Please come to my birthday party on Saturday. Can you please bring your Purple Pumpkins CDs and your High Five CD Please ask your brother to come, too. Jamie wants to play basketball with him. The party is at my grandma’s house—16 Station Road. It begins at 4:00 pm. Emma
36. Tim’s birthday party starts at ________.
A. 3:00 pm on Saturday B. 4:00 pm on Saturday C. 3:00 pm on Sunday D. 4:00 pm on Sunday
37. Tara wants Oliver to bring his ________.
A. running shoes B. football C. basketball D. High Five CD
38. Who wants to play basketball with Linda’s brother
A. Ben. B. Jamie. C. Emma. D. Linda.
B
We know some family names—Green, White, Black and Brown. They’re from colors in English. Mr. Hu has some foreign friends. They’re Mr. Green, Mr. White and Mr. Black. Mr. Hu and they are all in Beijing now.
Mr. Green’s name is Jeff. He’s English. He’s an English teacher in No. 5 Middle School. His wife (妻子) is Helen Green. Jim and Kelly are their children. Jim likes to play basketball.
Tony is Mr. White’s name. He’s from the USA, and his wife is Joan. He’s a policeman. They have three children—Jane, Emma and Bob. Jane and Emma are tall, but Bob is short.
Mr. Black is from the USA, too. His name is Eric. He’s a teacher in No. 4 Middle School. His wife is Mary. They have only one son—Jame. He’s the boy with short black hair.
39. What does the underlined (划线的) word “foreign” mean in Chinese
A. 当地的 B. 国内的 C. 外国的 D. 外交的
40. What is not mentioned (提及) in the text (文章)
A. Mr. Hu’s children. B. Jeff’s job. C. Jim’s hobby. D. Jame’s looks.
41. How many children does Eric have
A. Four. B. Three. C. Two. D. One.
42. Which is TRUE according to (根据) the text
A. Mr. Hu and his friends are in China now. B. Jeff and Tony are from the same country.
C. Kelly and Bob are short. D. There are four people in Tony’s family.
C
Hello, everyone! My name is Kevin. Please look at the photo. It is a photo of my bedroom (卧室). Now I want to tell you about my new bedroom.
My bedroom is very big. When you come in, you can see a blue bed. Next to the bed, there is a desk and a chair. They’re blue, too. It is my favorite color. My pencil box and notebooks are on the desk. And my computer is on it, too! I love it because it helps me a lot.
A nice sofa is in the middle of my bedroom. Next to the sofa is a table. My CD player (播放器) is on it. What’s under the table Oh, it’s a basketball. What are those on the wall Oh, they are some photos of my family.
I clean my bedroom every day, so it is very tidy. I like living in it very much.
43. What color does Kevin like best
A. Black. B. Red. C. Yellow. D. Blue.
44. What does the underlined word “it” refer to (指的是)
A. The computer. B. The desk. C. The pencil box. D. The chair.
45. How is Kevin’s bedroom
A. Big and tidy. B. Small but tidy. C. Old but big. D. Small but nice.
D
Alice is a student She usually gets up at 6: 30 in the morning. She has breakfast at home at 7: 00. Then she reads Chinese at 7: 15. She usually reads for half an hour. Alice goes to school with her cousin at 8 o’clock.
They always go to school by bus and it takes them 15 minutes to get to school. Alice has an English class at 8: 30 a.m. And she has four classes in the morning in total. Alice eats lunch with her classmates at school. She has PE and Chinese in the afternoon. At 5: 00, she goes home with her cousin, too. She does her homework after she gets home. After that, she helps her mom cook dinner and she has dinner with her parents at 6: 30 in the evening.
On Sundays, Alice doesn’t need to go to school. So she often gets up at 8: 30 a. m. She does some shopping with her mother in the morning. In the afternoon, she may go to the zoo with her friends or she may go to the West Hill for hiking.
46. Where does Alice eat her breakfast
A. At her cousin’s home. B. At school. C. At the restaurant. D. At home.
47. What time does Alice get to school
A. At 8: 00. B. At 8: 15. C. At 8: 30. D. At 8: 45.
48. What’s the correct order (正确的顺序) of these Alice’s activities
a. She helps her mom cook dinner. b. She eats lunch.
c. She reads Chinese. d. She has an English class.
A. dcab B. acbd C. cdba D. cadb
49. What is the best title (标题) for the text
A. Alice’s Daily Life B. Alice’s Big Family
C. Alice’s Hobbies D. Alice’s Favorite Subjects
E
There are many clubs in our school. Some students join different clubs.
On Monday and Wednesday afternoons, Sam and other students are in Room 301 and tell stories in turn (轮流). This is good for Sam’s writing and speaking. Sam also makes friends there.
Susan likes English. Every day after school, Susan comes to Room 201 to join in the activities of the English club. The English-speaking students there can help her with English.
Andy loves sports. In the gym, between 4:00 p.m. and 5:00 p.m. from Wednesday to Friday, the club’s PE teacher always teaches some skills (技巧). Then there is a basketball game.
On Tuesday and Thursday afternoons, Laura has some classes in the art club. She can learn a lot there. Laura can also talk about drawing with the art teacher and her friends.
50. Where is the English club
A. In Room 201. B. In Room 301. C. In Room 401. D. In Room 501.
51. When can Andy have basketball classes
A. On Mondays. B. On Tuesdays. C. On Thursdays. D. On Saturdays.
52. What can we learn from the text
A. Many girls like to watch basketball games.
B. The story-telling club is welcome on Tuesday.
C. Students in the English club can help us with our English.
D. Students can see great pictures in the art club on Monday.
第二节
F
阅读下面短文，并用英语回答问题(请注意每小题后面的词数要求)。
My name is Xiao Hui. This is a photo of my uncle and aunt and their farm. My uncle and aunt are both farmers (农民). They live on the farm.
In the picture, there are many different kinds of animals on the farm. There is a horse. It runs fast. It’s brown. There is a black pig. It is fat. There are two sheep. They’re white. You can also see cows, ducks and some rabbits. Eight rabbits are white and three are black. There is a dog under the big tree. There are also some plants on the farm. You can see three apple trees, some tomato plants, some potato plants and some flowers.
It is a good day. My uncle and aunt are working on the farm. The animals are eating and playing on the farm. They are all very happy.
53. Where do Xiao Hui’s uncle and aunt live (不超过5个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
54. What color is the pig (不超过5个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
55. How many kinds of animals are there on the farm (不超过5个词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
56. In China, the long noodles are a s________ of long life.
57. It’s our d________ (职责) to keep our classroom clean and tidy.
58. Tom doesn’t want to c________ (选择) this pair of shoes. (根据中英文提示单词拼写)
59. Emma likes to write some m________ (有魔力的) stories. (根据中英文提示单词拼写)
60. My sister often s________ (花) lots of time growing plants in the yard. (根据中英文提示单词拼写)
X. 书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
61. 学校英语社团开展“新生英语展示”活动，邀请七年级新同学用英语介绍真实的自我。假如你是李华，请根据以下内容提示，写一篇英语短文介绍自己。
内容提示：
1. 个人基本情况：姓名、年龄、生日等;
2. 日常生活与学习：作息安排、喜爱的学科等;
3. 爱好或特长及其原因。
要求：
1. 内容可以适当发挥，以保证内容的完整、丰富与流畅；
2. 不可出现真实的人名、地名和校名；
3. 词数：40—60。
________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
全椒县2024~2025学年度第一学期七年级期末质量检测
英语
注意事项：
1. 本试卷共四部分，十大题，满分120分，考试时间为120分钟。
2. 全卷包括“试题卷”(6页)和“答题卷”或“答题卡”(2页)两部分。
3. 请务必在“答题卷”或“答题卡”上答题，在“试题卷”上答题无效。
4. 考试结束后，请将“试题卷”和“答题卷”或“答题卡”一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共四大题，满分20分)
Ⅰ. 短对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
1. What’s the boy’s favourite sport
A. B. C.
2. What instrument can Linda play
A. B. C.
3. When does Danny have IT class
A. On Saturday. B. On Friday. C. On Thursday.
4. Where is Mary from
A. America. B. China. C. Canada.
5. What does the girl want to be in the future
A. A singer. B. A writer. C. A scientist.
Ⅱ. 长对话理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到两段对话，每段对话后有几个小题。请在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。每段对话读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至7小题。
6. What is the girl’s favourite subject
A. Art. B. Music. C. Maths.
7. Where is the art building
A. It’s behind the music hall.
B. It’s next to the music hall.
C. It’s across from the music hall.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至10小题。
8. What colour is the pet dog
A. Brown. B. White. C. Black.
9. Whose photo is that
A. John’s. B. Mike’s. C. Lisa’s.
10. What does Lisa’s aunt like
A. Ping-pong balls. B. Books. C. Plants and flowers.
Ⅲ. 短文理解(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题。请根据短文内容，在每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出一个最佳选项。短文读两遍。
11. What subject does Alice teach(教)
A. Maths. B. English. C. Chinese.
12. What time does Alice get up
A. At 6:00 a.m. B. At 5:00 a.m. C. At 6:00 p.m.
13. Where does Alice have lunch
A. At school. B. At home. C. In the restaurant.
14. Who does Alice have dinner with
A. Her students. B. Other teachers. C. Her parents.
15. How does Alice feel every day
A. Bored. B. Special. C. Happy.
Ⅳ. 信息转换(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
你将听到一篇短文。请根据短文内容，写出下面表格中所缺的单词，每空仅填一词。短文读两遍。
Daniel’s new school
Playground It’s so 16 . He often plays with his friends on it.
Classrooms They’re 17 and bright(明亮的). His classroom is on the 18 floor(层).
Library It’s new and 19 . They often go there in the 20 .
第二部分 英语知识运用(共三大题，满分35分)
V. 单项填空(共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
【1题答案】
【答案】A
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】D
【4题答案】
【答案】B
【5题答案】
【答案】B
【6题答案】
【答案】B
【7题答案】
【答案】C
【8题答案】
【答案】D
【9题答案】
【答案】A
【10题答案】
【答案】B
VL 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1分，满分20分)
阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. A 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A 16. D 17. B 18. A 19. C 20. D
B
【21~30题答案】
【答案】21. A 22. B 23. C 24. D 25. B 26. A 27. C 28. A 29. D 30. B
Ⅶ. 补全对话(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. F 32. B 33. G 34. C 35. D
第三部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)
Ⅷ. 阅读理解(共20小题;每小题2分，满分40分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳选项。
A
【36~38题答案】
【答案】36. C 37. A 38. B
B
【39~42题答案】
【答案】39. C 40. A 41. D 42. A
C
【43~45题答案】
【答案】43. D 44. B 45. A
D
【46~49题答案】
【答案】46. D 47. B 48. C 49. A
E
【50~52题答案】
【答案】50. A 51. C 52. C
第二节
F
【53~55题答案】
【答案】53. They live on their farm.
54. Black. 55. Seven kinds.
第四部分 写(共两大题，满分25分)
IX. 单词拼写(共5小题;每小题1分，满分5分)
根据首字母及汉语提示，完成下列单词的拼写，使句意明确，语言通顺。
【56题答案】
【答案】(s)ymbol
【57题答案】
【答案】duty##uty
【58题答案】
【答案】choose##hoose
【59题答案】
【答案】magic/agic
【60题答案】
【答案】spends##pends
X. 书面表达(共1小题;满分20分)
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
My name is Li Hua. I am 12 and my birthday is on July 7th. I am a student. I wake up at 6:30 and go to school after breakfast. My favorite subject is English because it is useful. I like reading. I think reading is fun.
I want to be an English teacher in the future.

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