资源简介

福建省高三资优生第一次联合阶段检测
英语参考答案、评分标准、听力录音稿
2025.12
第一部分听力
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
6. A 7. C 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. A 13. A 14. B 15. C
16. C 17. A 18. B 19. C 20. C
第二部分阅读
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
21. D 22. D 23. C 24. B 25. B 26. D 27. C 28. C 29. A 30. A
31.B 32. A 33. D 34. C 35. B
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
36. F 37. A 38. D 39. G 40. E
第三部分语言运用
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
41. C 42. A 43. A 44. D 45. C 46. B 47. C 48. D 49. A 50. A
51. B 52. B 53. C 54. D 55.B
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56. spiritual 57. as 58. an 59. decorated 60. that
61. have strengthened 62. responsibility 63. and 64. being included 65. systemically
评分原则：
第二节如出现可接受的答案，由评卷点裁定，酌情给分。
第四部分写作
第一节（满分15分）
作答示例
Dear Daniel,
I’m Li Hua, a student excited about our tech club’s upcoming aerospace exhibition. To help make it more meaningful, I’d like to offer two practical suggestions.
First, it would be inspiring to display scale models of major achievements like the Long March rocket and the lunar vehicle. This allows visitors to visually appreciate China’s aerospace progress. Second, arranging a documentary session featuring astronauts and engineers would offer personal insights into their dedication and teamwork.
I believe such activities will not only make the exhibition informative but also motivate more students to explore aerospace science.
Wishing the event a great success!
Yours,
Li Hua
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为15分，按5个档次给分。
2. 评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
3. 词数少于60和多于100的，酌情扣分。
4. 评分时应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
6. 如书写较差以致影响交际，可将分数降低一个档次。
二、内容要点
1.提供建议；
2.说明理由。
各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 13~15分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 —覆盖所有内容要点。 —应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 —语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 —有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第四档 10~12分 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 —虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 —语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 —应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档 7~9分 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 —虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 —应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 —有一些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 —应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档 4~6分 未适当完成试题规定的任务。 —漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 —语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 —有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 —较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
第一档 1~3分 未完成试题规定的任务。 —明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 —语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 —较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 —缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
第二节（满分25分）
作答示例
On the fencing area, every movement told the story of her return. Holding tightly to her fencing sword, Jackie took a deep breath and stepped forward. Her opponent was a storm of speed, each attack a flash of silver light. But Jackie trusted her training, her body’s memory rising to meet the challenge. She planted her back leg with intention, transforming defensive natural reactions into controlled, precise actions. Every scoring touch was not just a point, but a strong answer to every thought of giving up. Then, with one final, perfect quick forward move, she scored the decisive hit.
When the final signal sounded, she stood not just in victory, but in change. The referee’s call confirmed it – she had won a medal. Tears blurred her vision as her eyes found her mother’s shining face in the crowd. That unshakable support had carried her from the darkest and hardest times to this successful peak. The medal in her hand was heavy proof: not giving up was indeed the key, and every defeat had laid a stone on this path. With sweat and will, she turned past shadows into her own light.
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为25分，按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时，主要从内容、语言表达和篇章结构三个方面考查，具体为：
( 1 ) 续写内容的质量、续写的完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
( 2 ) 所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
( 3 ) 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
评分时，应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次，然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量，
确定或调整档次，最后给分。
评分时还应注意：
( 1 ) 词数少于120的，酌情扣分。
( 2 ) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面，评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑，英美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
( 3 ) 书写较差以致影响交际的，酌情扣分。
各档次的给分范围和要求
第五档 —创造了丰富、合理的内容，富有逻辑性，续写完整，与原文情境融洽度高。 —使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。 —有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
（21~25分）
第四档 —创造了比较丰富、合理的内容，比较富有逻辑性，续写比较完整，与原文情境融洽度比较高。 —使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构，可能有个别小错，但完全不影响理解。 —比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段，全文结构清晰，意义连贯。
（16~20分）
第三档 —创造了基本合理的内容，有一定的逻辑性，续写基本完整，与原文情境相关。 —使用了简单的词汇和语法结构，有一些错误和不恰当之处，但基本不影响理解。 —基本有效地使用了语句间的衔接手段，全文结构基本清晰，意义基本连贯。
（11~15分）
第二档 —未能创造合理的内容，全文逻辑性较差，续写不完整，与原文情境相关度不高。 —使用了较少词汇和语法结构，有较多错误，影响理解。 —很少使用语句间的衔接手段，结构不够清晰，意义不够连贯。
（6~10分）
第一档 —未能创造合理的内容，全文逻辑性差，续写不完整，与原文情境相关度差。 —未能使用合适的词汇和语法结构，有很多错误，影响理解。 —未能使用语句间的衔接手段，结构不清晰，意义不连贯。
（1~5分）
0分 —未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
2025~26学年第一学期高三“资优生”阶段性联考
英语听力部分录音稿　　
这是2025~26学年第一学期高三“资优生”阶段性联考英语科听力部分。该部分分为第一、第二两节。　　
注意：回答听力部分时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将你的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。
停顿00′10″
现在是听力试音时间。
M: Hello. International Friends Club. Can I help you
W: Oh, hello. I read about your club in the paper today and I thought I’d phone to find out a bit more.
M: Yes, certainly. Well, we’re a sort of social club for people from different countries. It’s quite a
new club—we have about 50 members at the moment, but we’re growing all the time.
W: That sounds interesting. I’m British actually, and I came to Washington about three months
ago. I’m looking for ways to meet people. Er… what kinds of events do you organize
M: Well, we have social get-togethers, and sports events, and we also have language evenings.
W: Could you tell me something about the language evenings
M: Yes. Every day except Thursday we have a language evening. People can come and practice their languages—you know, over a drink or something. We have different languages on different evenings. Monday—Spanish; Tuesday—Italian; Wednesday—German; and Friday— French. On Thursday we usually have a meal in a restaurant for anyone who wants to come.
W: Well, that sounds great. I really need to practice my French.
M: OK. Well, if you can just give me your name and address, I’ll send you the form and some more information. If you join now you can have the first month free.
试音到此结束。
听力考试正式开始。
停顿00′10″
请看听力部分第一节。　　
第一节　　
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
停顿00′02″
例如：现在你有5秒钟的时间看试卷上的例题。
停顿00′05″
你将听到以下内容：
M: Excuse me. Can you tell me how much the shirt is
W: Yes, it’s nine fifteen.
停顿00′02″
你将有5秒钟的时间将正确答案划在试卷上。
衬衫的价格为9镑15便士，所以你选择C项，并将其划在试卷上。
现在，你有5秒钟的时间阅读第1小题的有关内容。
停顿00′05″
哔—
(Text 1)
M: Will you see Finding Nemo at Fancy Theatre on Saturday, Sarah
W: Why not, Matthew I’ve secured the ticket.
M: Great! I’ll book one before I go home.
停顿00′10″
哔—
(Text 2)
W: I hear you had your bag dropped in the park!
M: So I did. Luckily I found it, with just some unimportant papers blown away. Guess what, my ID card and passport were safe and sound.
停顿00′10″
哔—
(Text 3)
M: Would you like another cup of coffee
W: I haven’t finish mine. Besides, departure time is nearing. You don’t want to miss the flight, do you
M: Certainly not. Now, you go on with coffee and I collect our luggage.
停顿00′10″
哔—
(Text 4)
W: Can you wash the dishes for me And then we weed the garden together.
M: OK, Grandma. I like weeding and planting, but I must clean my newly-bought football boots before I do that. You know, I want to have a game of football with my classmates tomorrow.
W: All right. But better clean them regularly.
M: I will.
停顿00′10″
哔—
(Text 5)
W: How long did you have for writing the paper, Andrew
M: Well, it was scheduled from 2:30 to 5:00, but I got it done earlier.
W: A quarter earlier at the most, I guess.
M: No, double!
停顿00′05″
哔—
第一节到此结束。
第二节 　
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
哔—
听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。现在，你有10秒钟的时间阅读这两个小题。
停顿 00′10″
哔—
(Text 6)
W: It’s rising time, Jim!
M: I’m not myself today, mom. I don’t feel like dining. I’m afraid I’m running into a headache.
W: I bet you stayed too long in the guest-room last night and the cold there made you so ill.
M: I suppose so. I should have gone to bed earlier.
W: Let me call Dr. Black and have an appointment with him.
M: But seeing a doctor is my last choice. I’m really sick of medicine. I’d rather keep myself warm in the blanket and sweating for a while. I’m sure I’ll get better that way.
停顿 00′02″
重复
停顿 00′10″
哔—
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第10三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
停顿 00′15″
哔—
(Text 7)
M: Kayla, I’m really concerned about the coming exam.
W: Be sure of yourself, Ivan.
M: I was so worried that I was thinking all the way on my bus yesterday. And I missed my stop. Then I had to walk one stop back and got home. It made me truly depressed.
W: Never again! In fact, I can lend you a hand. I’ll design some questions for you at our supper time.
M: It’s so kind of you. Then I’m going back home for some peace and quiet. The classroom is always crowded and noisy.
W: My place is not the same as yours. My little sister is always crying.
M: Is she My brother is comfortable with me.
停顿 00′02″
重复
停顿 00′15″
哔—
听下面一段对话，回答第11至第13三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
停顿 00′15″
哔—
(Text 8)
W: What seems to be the problem
M: Who knows The engine has failed without any warning.
W: Is it running out of petrol
M: Absolutely not.
W: Look! The metre says “empty”.
M: How come I got the tank filled just two hours ago. I’m quite sure the tank is at least half full now!
W: But the engine has gone dead. Bad luck!
M: What time is it now
W: It’s ten past eight. I am afraid we can’t get to the speech on time. If only it would be put off!
M: Let’s stand by the side of the road for a few minutes. Maybe somebody will stop and pick us up.
W: Well, that’s the only choice.
停顿 00′02″
重复
停顿 00′15″
哔—
听下面一段对话，回答第14至第17四个小题。现在，你有20秒钟的时间阅读这四个小题。
停顿 00′20″
哔—
(Text 9)
W: Now, you see, this is our sample room.
M: Wow, Kingston’s got a large collection of sample foodstuffs.
W: Yes. We are exporting a wide range of foodstuffs to various countries. And the demand is on the rise.
M: So it is. It appears that Chinese foodstuffs are attractive and enjoy great advantages.
W: You said it. The quality of ours is as good as that of many other suppliers, while our prices are not so high as theirs. By the way, which items are your focus
M: Canned goods are of special interest to me, particularly the canned fruit. As your canned fruit is among the most popular ones in our market, I’m going to place an order in a day or two.
W: Good. How about our canned meat
M: I think it will also find good market in our country.
W: I hope so. Our canned meat is in varieties of weights.
M: The small sizes are more saleable in our market than the large ones. I’ve brought with me a sample of canned meat, which is only six ounces. The smallest size of yours is even bigger than that of mine. I wonder if your canned meat tastes better.
W: You are welcome to have a try. Here it is.
停顿 00′02″
重复
停顿 00′20″
哔—
听下面一段独白，回答第18至第20三个小题。现在，你有15秒钟的时间阅读这三个小题。
停顿 00′15″
哔—
(Text 10)
Morning, everyone, I’d like to share with you about my understanding of happiness and health. Guys, just imagine: What would happen if we could study people from the time that they were young all the way into old age to see what really keeps them happy and healthy
We did that. The Harvard Study of Adult Development may be the longest study of adult life that’s ever been done. For 75 years, we’ve studied the lives of 724 men since 1938, year after year, asking about their work, their home lives and their health. The clearest message that we get from this 75-year study is this: Good relationships keep us happier and healthier. Social connections are really good for us. It turns out that people who are more socially connected to family, to friends, and to community, are happier, they’re physically healthier, and they live longer than people who are less well connected.
And the experience of loneliness turns out to be harmful. People who are more separated than they want to be from others find that they are less happy. Their health falls earlier in midlife.
停顿 00′02″
重复
停顿 00′15″
哔—
第二节到此结束。
现在，你有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到客观题答题卡上。
停顿 02′00″
哔—
听力部分到此结束。福建省高三资优生第一次联合阶段检测
英语试题
2025.12
注意事项：
1.答题前，考生须在试题卷、答题卡规定的位置填写自己的准考证号、姓名。考生应认真核对答题卡上粘贴的条形码的“准考证号、姓名”与考生本人准考证号、姓名是否一致。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束，考生须将试题卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话读两遍。
例： How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C。
1. What does Sarah intend to do
A. See a movie. B. Book a ticket. C. Go home with Matthew.
2. What was the final loss
A. A bag. B. Some papers. C. A passport.
3. What will the speakers do next
A. Enjoy coffee. B. Board the plane. C. Check the luggage.
4. What does the conversation focus on
A. Shopping. B. Sports. C. Housework.
5. What time did Andrew hand in the paper
A. At 4:30. B. At 4:45. C. At 5:00.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每
小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where are the speakers
A. In the bedroom. B. In the dining-room. C. In the guest-room.
7. What is Jim's idea
A. Taking some medicine. B. Sweating with exercise. C. Going back to sleep.
听第7段材料，回答第8至10题。
8. What happened to Ivan on the way home yesterday
A. He failed to catch the bus.
B. Anxiety broke his concentration.
C. Depressing questions disturbed him.
9. How will Kayla do to help
A. Vocationally. B. Financially. C. Academically.
10. Who behaves well
A. Ivan's brother. B. Kayla's sister. C. Kayla's brother.
听第8段材料，回答第11至 13题。
11. What happens to the speakers
A. Their car runs out of petrol.
B. Their car breaks down halfway.
C. The tank of their car goes wrong.
12. What is the woman's desire in terms of the speech
A. It would be delayed.
B. It would begin as scheduled.
C. It would have“empty” seats left.
13. What does the woman feel about the final decision
A. Resigned. B. Puzzled. C. Disappointed.
听第9段材料，回答第14至 17题。
14. What does the woman probably do
A. A food buyer. B. A sales manager. C. A foodstuff collector.
15. What can we say about Kingston
A. It trades with the Chinese people.
B. It has a wide range of sample rooms.
C. The prices of its products are reasonable.
16. Why will the man order canned fruit so soon
A. It is high- profit. B. It is top- quality. C. It is the most in- demand.
17. Which decides the popularity of canned meat in the man's country
A. The size. B. The taste. C. The shape.
听第10段材料，回答第18至 20题。
18. How is the Harvard Study of Adult Development done
A. By studying happy students at young ages.
B. By researching people from young to old.
C. By interviewing 724 adults one by one.
19. Which best describes those who are healthier and happier
A. Dynamic. B. Emotional. C. Sociable.
20. What message does the speech aim to convey
A. Health is the most important of all.
B. People with good habits enjoy long life.
C. A sense of community leads to a good life.
第二部分阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Multi- day cycling journeys represent a unique combination of physical challenge, absorbed travel,and intense environmental engagement. This mode of travel, cycling, allows for a close exploration of diverse landscapes. It is defined by its independence and a pace that is ideal for deep cultural and geographical appreciation. The following typical routes illustrate the varied appeal of such undertakings, each presenting a distinct set of physical demands and cultural rewards.
DANUBE CYCLE PATH
Crossing the river from its German source to its mouth in Romania constitutes an awe- inspiring1,800- mile journey. However, its picturesque Austrian section offers a highly scenic alternative.Starting just across the German border in Passau, cyclists can conclude their journey in Slovakia, with
Bratislava readily accessible from Vienna by train.
C2C(Sea-to-Sea) ROUTE
Modeled on the trans-England principle of Hadrian's Wall, this route negotiates the rough landform of the Lake District and North Pennines. Participants often observe the tradition of engaging their back wheel in the Irish Sea at the outset, and their front wheel in the North Sea upon reaching the edge of Newcastle.
CANAL DU MIDI
This global cultural treasure in France was designed with boats not bikes in mind, but its tree-lined canal paths make for a very civilized cycle. Exodus Travels’ tour also takes in the historic walled town of Carcassonne from the Middle Ages and a chance to wash of the dust of the road on a pretty beach.
CROSS CAPE
This leg-testing journey crosses the southern tip of the African continent. Departing fromPlettenberg Bay, the route progresses through the unique fynbos ecosystem, passes historic towns, and eventually reaches Stellenbosch, the heart of the Cape Winelands.
Distance Typical Duration Official Resource
DANUBE CYCLE PATH 250 miles About 8 days danube-cycle-
C2C (Sea-to-Sea) ROUTE 150 miles About 6 days c2c-guide.co.uk
CANAL DU MIDI 120 miles About 5 days exodus.co.uk
CROSS CAPE 450 miles About 14 days capecycleroutes. co. za
21. What is the primary purpose of the text
A. To advertise cycling tours.
B. To contrast cycling difficulties.
C. To explore cycling path history.
D. To feature distinct cycling routes.
22. Which best suits cyclists seeking the most physically demanding challenge
A. DANUBE CYCLE PATH. B. C2C(Sea-to-Sea)ROUTE.
C. CANAL DU MIDI. D. CROSS CAPE.
23. What is a common characteristic of all these trips
A. Being global cultural treasure.
B. Offering transport flexibility.
C. Integrating nature and culture.
D. Focusing on history and tradition.
B
In one flash, Sartore captures a tiger with its mouth open wide, showing long, sharp teeth and striking black and orange lines. This tiger is just one of the thousands of species Sartore has photographed during his career.
Sartore began his career as an explorer, wildlife photographer, and conservationist in Lincoln,Nebraska, where he spent his weekends in nature fishing with his father. He took notice of numerous wildlife around him. His father always made him aware of nature's beauty and how humans played a part in its gradual destruction.
In 2006, Sartore founded the Photo Ark project to show the world the beauty of biodiversity and inspire action to save endangered species. Now fully supported by the National Geographic Society, thePhoto Ark has reached hundreds of millions of people.“The Photo Ark was created to try and get the world to care about the extinction crisis and inspire people around the globe to take action to save wildlife,” Sartore said.“A lot has changed since the project began-some species have seen their numbers rise for the first time in decades.”
Through eye contact, closeness, and the absence of a natural setting, Sartore's photos reveal an extreme depth in other species, forcing viewers to acknowledge their beauty, intelligence, and right to exist. Each photo he takes creates a unique and personal portrait of a creature. Aiming to photograph an estimated 20,000 species living in captivity (圈养) and inspire people to help protect at-risk species,Sartore is over halfway to his goal. His strong passion for wildlife conservation is what drove him to photograph in the wild. From fighting off mosquitoes in the heat of Bolivia to getting up close and personal with polar bears on Alaska's frontier, Sartore has devoted hours upon hours waiting for the perfect shot.
A good photograph can give a voice to the voiceless. Photography can make a difference in two ways: It can expose environmental problems as nothing else can, and it can help get people to care.
24. What can we know about Sartore
A. His family shaped his conservation values.
B. His efforts have shown positive results.
C. He has achieved his ultimate goal.
D. He documents captive animals.
25. Why does the author include the last paragraph
A. To highlight the message in photos.
B. To state belief in photography's impact.
C. To call for more problem-solving photos.
D. To show photography's power to give voice.
26. Which can best describe Sartore
A. Sensitive and capable. B. Grateful and intelligent.
C. Considerate and generous. D. Innovative and inspiring.
27. What is the best title for the text
A. The Photo Ark and Its Founder B. The Life of photographer Sartore
C. Photography Motivates Conservation D. Giving a Voice to the Voiceless
C
In a November 1984 story for Technology Review, Carolyn Sumners, head of astronomy at theHouston Museum of Natural Science, described how toys, games, and even amusement park rides could change how young minds view science and math. Sumners noted, a yo-yo can be used to observe the forces on a roller coaster. Even a simple ball offers insights into the laws of gravity.
While Sumners concentrated on physics, she was onto something bigger. Over the last several decades, evidence has emerged that childhood play can shape our future selves: the skills we develop,the professions we choose, our sense of self- worth, and even our relationships.
According to Jacqueline Harding, a child development expert and author of The Brain That Loves to Play,“If you invest time in play, which helps with organizational skills, decision- making, toughness- all those things- then it's going to guide you into a much more safe, secure space in the future.”
Sumners concentrated mostly on hard skills, the scientific knowledge that toys and games can help develop. But there are soft skills, too, like creativity, problem- solving, teamwork, and empathy.
“The kinds of playthings, or play activities, that really produce creative thought,” she says,“are natural materials, with no defined end to them- like clay, paint, water, and mud- so that there is no right or wrong way of playing with it.”
Playing is by definition voluntary, and goal- free; it involves taking risks, testing boundaries, and experimenting. The best kind of play results in joyful discovery, and along the way, the building blocks of innovation and personal development take shape. But in the decades since Sumners wrote her story,the landscape of play has shifted considerably. Recent research suggests that digital games and virtual play don't appear to facilitate the same developmental benefits as physical games and outdoor play.
“The brain loves the rewards that are coming from digital media,” says Harding. But in screen- based play,“you' re not getting that independence.” The lack of physical interaction also concerns her:“It is the quality of human face- to- face interaction, eye- to- eye look, and mutual engagement in a play activity that really makes a difference.”
28. What can be inferred from the first two paragraphs
A. The educational value of a yo-yo is limited to physics.
B. Play's influence on career choice was known in the 1980s.
C. Sumners accurately predicted the broad impact of play.
D. Sumners' primary interest was in children's mental health.
29. What function does paragraph 3 serve
A. To back up a statement. B. To clarify a concept.
C. To offer an explanation. D. To make a prediction
30. What is Semners' attitude towards digital games
A. Disapproving. B. Favorable. C. Cautious. D. Unclear.
31. What does Harding emphasize as a key to play
A. Joyful discovery. B. Physical interaction.
C. Personal development. D. Screen-based independence.
D
As artificial intelligence advances, its growing demand for energy has motivated scientists to explore unconventional computing methods. One promising direction is biocomputing-a field that uses biological materials such as living cells to process information, potentially offering a more sustainable alternative to traditional silicon-based (硅基的) systems.
A pioneering example comes from the Swiss company FinalSpark, which has developed a“Neuroplatform” powered by lab-grown brain organoids (类器官). These very small cell structures are linked to devices used to stimulate them with tiny electrical charges and are exposed to a chemical reward signal (or pleasure chemical) to mimic a reward-based learning mechanism. This process encourages nerve cells to form new connections, mimicking aspects of human brain learning. The company aims to run complex AI tasks using up to 100,000 times less energy than current hardware.
Research teams from institutions such as the University of Michigan and the Free University ofBerlin are experimenting with this platform. Some are developing ways to communicate with organoids,while others are integrating them into machine learning models. However, significant challenges remain. The organoids have a limited lifespan, averaging about 100 days, and there is no standardized method for producing them. Ethical concerns also arise regarding the use of human structures similar to brain cells for non-medical applications.
Beyond brain organoids, other forms of biocomputing are being actively researched. ngelGo i-Moreno from Spain's National Center for Biotechnology is engineering bacterial cells to perform computational tasks. These cellular systems can sense and respond to environmental changes, making them ideal for applications such as water quality monitoring-a task beyond the reach of conventional
electronics.
Similarly, Andrew Adamatzky at the University of the West of England is studying fungal (真菌)fiber networks. These structures exhibit electrical activity similar to nerve cells and can be trained to perform computational functions. Fungal computing offers advantages in cost, sustainability, and ethical acceptability compared to brain organoid approaches.
While it is still early for large-scale use, biocomputing represents a highly promising frontier in the search for energy-efficient computing. Whether through brain organoids, bacteria, or fungi, these biological systems open new possibilities for sustainable AI and environmental interaction-demonstrating that the computers of the future may be more alive than we ever imagined.
32. Why are scientists developing biocomputing
A. To cut AI energy consumption. B. To boost computer intelligence.
C. To study brain learning. D. To invent complicated AI.
33. What does the underlined word“mimic” in paragraph 2 mean
A. Initiate. B. Simplify. C. Evaluate. D. Reproduce.
34. What can be inferred about organoid computing
A. It is limited by its short lifespan.
B. It is already standardized for production.
C. It is technically and ethically challenging.
D. It is universally focused on communication.
35. What does water quality monitoring suit
A. Brain organoids. B. Bacterial computers.
C. Fungal networks. D. Silicon systems.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
The Joy of Dictionaries
I still remember feeling let down upon learning that words carry hidden meanings beyond their dictionary definitions. As a youngster, I saw learning as a task to be completed, and these fine distinctions felt like obstacles. 36 This set me free to read for pleasure, guided by curiosity rather than a desire to know everything. I began to see dictionaries as field guides to language- not as signs of failure, but as gateways to discovery.
I treasure my 1954 Webster's dictionary, which I keep open on a table. I often consult it while reading. When I encounter new words repeatedly- in articles, books, or conversations- the world of
language suddenly feels smaller and more familiar.
37 They turn my attention outward and make me wonder what else I' ve failed to notice.For example, I recently learned“orrery”—a mechanical model of the solar system. It's not particularly useful, but deeply satisfying.
Unlike the endless things that take your attention away on the internet, a dictionary offers focus.38 Looking up a word feels like solving a small mystery— an instant reward for curiosity.
Dictionaries reconnect us with the pure, childlike urge to know things, before learning became a duty. They have also evolved over time. Samuel Johnson's 1755 dictionary had 40,000 entries; today'sOxford English Dictionary contains over 400,000. 39
Noah Webster saw his American dictionary as an act of patriotism, helping shape a national identity separate from England. Though sometimes seen as restrictive, dictionaries don't create language- people do. The word“dilettante,” for instance, once simply meant“one who delights in the arts.”
40 They remind us that paying attention and following our wonder are what truly connect us to the world beyond the immediate.
A. Dictionaries sharpen my awareness.
B. Years later, I recognized their definitions.
C. Increasing vocabulary seemed significant.
D. It uses simple words to explain complex ones.
E. To me, dictionaries represent curiosity-driven learning.
F. It was only after college that I realized knowledge is limitless.
G. This growth shows how language can never be fully contained.
第三部分语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
The gentle current of the New River promised Tammy Rakes and her daughter Brittney Doffin another peaceful kayaking (皮艇运动) trip. As 41 kayakers, they sailed the familiar waterway,but calm waters suddenly became challenging rapids. Halfway through, misfortune 42 : Brittney's kayak overturned, throwing her into the cold, rushing water.
Just as 43 set in, Tammy spotted a stranger on an inflatable tube pulling her daughter to safety. In the 44 current, Brittney held tightly to the man's tube. With remaining calm, he 45her and the kayak. Their 46 , however, was far from over. As Tammy approached, her own kayak began to sink.Instantly, the man 47 his essential life-saving device to her. Following his lead, both women finally reached the riverbank, exhausted but safe. After their 48 thanks, the rescuer slipped away quietly.
Determined not to let his selfless 49 fade unnoticed, they launched a search online. Doffin50 a detailed post with an out-of-focus photo across online kayaking discussion boards. Her 51eventually led her to the man, though he requested privacy.
Deeply 52 , Doffin and her mother began volunteering at a local river rescue station. Doffin also created“Kindness Floats” badges(徽章) to 53 the stranger's spirit.
One afternoon, a man visited the station. The 54 of his hat caught Doffin's eye. She 55recognized him. He explained that he would join their volunteer mission, spreading warmth throughout communities.
41. A. serious B. brave C. experienced D. professional
42. A. struck B. inched C. repeated D. approached
43. A. panic B. surprise C. depression D. embarrassment
44. A. deep B. clear C. gentle D. strong
45. A. moved B. accepted C. gathered D. reached
46. A. journey B. trouble C. rescue D. adventure
47. A. gave out B. put away C. handed over D. pointed at
48. A. silent B. polite C. final D. tearful
49. A. gesture B. mission C. manner D. thought
50. A. shared B. deleted C. avoided D. corrected
51. A. demands B. efforts C. curiosity D. involvement
52. A. honored B. affected C. shocked D. encouraged
53. A. record B. analyze C. spread D. challenge
54. A. value B. symbol C. expense D. familiarity
55. A. calmly B. joyfully C. doubtfully D. unwillingly
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Designated as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 1997, Lijiang Ancient City in Yunnan Province remarkably preserves the unique culture of the Naxi people and their 56 (spirit) connection to nature. Founded in the 13th century, it is known 57 China's only ancient city built without a
defensive wall.
The city is full of natural beauty and attracts visitors from all over the world. Snow-capped mountains, ancient architecture, and waterways create 58 unforgettable experience. Traditional wooden buildings 59 (decorate) with red lanterns, along with the sound of local musicians performing Naxi instruments, display the region's most distinctive culture 60 seems frozen in time. Regular celebrations like the Torch Festival provide a festive atmosphere full of local characteristics.
As important carriers of traditional cultural heritage, ancient cities like Lijiang 61(strengthen) cultural conservation alongside tourism development so far. Last year, the NationalCultural Heritage Administration issued policies encouraging social forces to share the 62 (responsible) of protecting cultural architecture.
“Through these measures, we can better protect historical objects, 63 in doing so,promote sustainable tourism,” said Su Yawei, manager of Taiyuan Ancient County. Professor GengYeqiang also highlighted that by 64 (include) in cultural tourism circles, ancient cities can stimulate local economies during heritage preservation.
“When modern cities 65 (systemic) integrate their past, both cultural preservation and tourism development benefit,” Su concluded.
第四部分写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
假定你是李华，你校科技社团拟举办“航空航天”主题展览。现请你致信活动负责人、国际部交换生 Daniel，为其提供建议，以期活动顺利举办。内容包括：
(1)具体建议；
(2)相关理由。
注意：
(1)写作词数应为80个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Daniel, I'm Li Hua, a student excited about our tech club's upcoming aerospace exhibition. Yours, Li Hua
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
Jackie Hsiao's journey to the 2025 Fencing(击剑) Junior Olympics in Charlotte began in an unexpected summer years before eighth grade. It was at a camp that she first held a fencing sword-and hated it. Burning hot in heavy clothing, tasting defeat after defeat against experienced opponents,she dragged herself home each day worn out and disheartened. Yet, somewhere in the exhaustion, a small light refused to die, quietly urging her to pick up the weapon again in high school.
There, she found more than a sport-she found a home. A circle of fellow fencers and encouraging coaches welcomed her. Jackie committed herself to the fencing sword, her skills sharpening season by season. But in senior year, a sudden injury threatened to cut her path entirely. What the doctor said cast a long shadow over her future. What followed was a difficult rebirth: surgery, then nine months of physical treatment, two or three sessions a week, each a step back toward the fencing area.
While her body remembered its defenses, her mind had to relearn the game. Physically, Jackie's natural defensive style remained, though now balanced with a careful awareness of her back leg. The real battle, however, was fought between her peting at a high level demanded mental strength.She learned the hard way that doubt was a self-fulfilling prediction:“If you think you' re going to do badly, it does have an impact.” Through recent tournaments, she developed a new voice within-one that trusted her training and quieted the noise of overthinking.
Every match was a lesson, every lesson a step forward. Fencing taught Jackie that“not giving up is key,” and that“losing is one of the best ways to learn.” She carefully studied videos of her matches,recorded by her mother and teammates, examining every move for clues to improvement. Her family's firm support was the foundation upon which she built her comeback-from those early hard days to the bright lights of the national stage. When the qualification email arrived, her first call was to her mother,the thrilling news bursting through the phone line.
注意：
(1)续写词数应为150个左右；
(2)请按如下格式在答题纸的相应位置作答。
On the fencing area, every movement told the story of her return. When the final signal sounded, she stood not just in victory, but in change.

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