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河南省百师联盟2025-2026学年高二上12月联考英语试卷B
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、考生号等填写在答题卡上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
考试时间为120分钟，满分150分
第一部分 听力(共两节，满分30分)
做题时，先将答案标在试卷上，录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
双击图标打开英语听力音频：
1. What are the speakers doing
A. Attending a meeting.
B. Preparing for a meeting.
C. Looking through some materials.
2. Who is the man probably talking to
A. A customer. B. A waitress. C. A chef.
3. How many hours does the man suggest studying in the library a week
A. 4 hours. B. 5 hours. C. 8 hours.
4. What does the man offer to do for Suzy
A. Repair her car. B. Book a ticket for her. C. Take her to the airport.
5. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Their favorite types of music.
B. Different kinds of instruments.
C. Their favorite rock stars.
第二节(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。
6. Where does the woman work now
A. In the library. B. In a pet shop. C. In a supermarket.
7. What does the woman think of her new manager
A. She's patient. B. She's clever. C. She's quiet.
听第7段材料，回答第8、9题。
8. What did the man do just before the conversation
A. He did some reading. B. He relaxed on a beach. C. He went fishing.
9. Why was Goby put on the beach
A. To attract tourists. B. To introduce the beach. C. To act as a rubbish bin.
听第8段材料，回答第10至 12题。
10. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. In a museum. B. In an office. C. In a restaurant.
11. What day is it today
A. Monday. B. Tuesday. C. Friday.
12. What does the woman decide to do at last
A. Change the reservation. B. Wait for her turn. C. Come back tomorrow.
听第9段材料，回答第13 至 16题。
13. Why is the woman unable to play badminton with the man
A. She is busy. B. She gets injured. C. She feels tired.
14. Who is the man probably
A. A doctor. B. A trainer. C. A student.
15. What does the man suggest the woman do
A. Practice Tai Chi. B. Have some rest. C. Exercise with his mum.
16. What will the woman do tomorrow evening
A. Visit the man's house. B. Take a piano lesson. C. Search for some videos.
听第 10段材料，回答第17至20题。
17. Who is Benjamin Franklin according to the talk
A. The forefather of the US Postal system.
B. The first man to deliver mail in the US.
C. One of the pilots flying the mail initially.
18. How long have mailmen been delivering mail by scooter (小型摩托车)
A. Over 250 years. B. Over 200 years. C. Over 100 years.
19. When did women begin to take city routes to deliver mail
A. In 1775. B. In 1917. C. In 1918.
20. What will the speaker probably talk about next
A. Another person who flew the mail.
B. A story about a female mail carrier.
C. An organization that delivers mail.
第二部分 阅读(共两节，满分50分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Waterhouse Natural Science Art Prize Competition
The Waterhouse Natural Science Art Prize was launched in 2002 and is named in honour of the South Australian Museum's first director, Frederick George Waterhouse. The prize is an opportunity for artists to investigate the world around them and present their perspectives on natural science. Two main award categories are available, an Open Prize with a $30,000 cash prize and an Emerging Artists' Prize with a $10,000 cash prize.
Who can enter
Artists of any age, nationality and experience who create art relating to the natural world can enter the Waterhouse Natural Science Art Prize. The entry fee is $30 for each entry. Artists can submit (递交) up to three entries in their chosen category.
What work is eligible(合格)
Any form of visual fine art that relates to the natural world is eligible for the competition,with the exception of photography. To be eligible, the work must have been produced no earlier than January 2025 and must relate to the natural world and the sciences associated with it, such as biology, geology, astronomy, chemistry and physics. Works relating to natural history are also eligible.
What are the key dates
Entries open on 11 August, 2025 and close on 4 December, 2025.
Shortlisting (初选) will take place in early 2026, and all shortlisted artists will be advised by mid-February 2026.
Finalists' works will be exhibited at the South Australian Museum from 11 April, 2026 to 19July, 2026.
How do I enter
Entries are available on our official website only. For further information please contact waterhouseartprize@ samuseum. sa. gov. au.
21. What is the main purpose of the Waterhouse Prize
A. Supporting photographers worldwide. B. Encouraging art about nature and science.
C. Honoring a famous Australian artist. D. Funding research projects on natural science.
22. Which type of work would be accepted
A. A historical portrait painted in 2023.
B. A sculpture of an astronaut made in 2024.
C. A painting of a natural reserve created in 2025.
D. A photo series on robot designing taken in 2025.
23. What do we know about the competition
A. It is limited to artists in Australia.
B. Participants shall pay $30 for registration.
C. The exhibition happens before shortlisting.
D. Finalists' entries will be displayed in a museum.
B
Tejasvi Manoj, a 17- year- old senior at Lebanon Trail High School in Frisco, Texas, has been named the 2025 TIME Kid of the Year for her innovative work protecting seniors from online scams (诈骗). Out of 74 million children in the U. S., Manoj stood out for creating ShieldSeniors, a website designed to help older adults identify and report cheating emails and texts.
The inspiration for Shield Seniors started in February 2024, when Manoj, then a 16- year- old junior, learned that her 85- year- old grandfather had nearly fallen victim (受害者) to an email scam requesting $ 2,000. Her father intervene d, confirming with her uncle that the request was cheating. Alarm ed by the incident, Manoj researched cybercrime and discovered that scams targeting seniors caused nearly $ 5 billion in losses in 2024.
Determined to act, Manoj built Shield Seniors, a site that allows users to upload suspicious messages for analysis and provides links to report scam. Still in private preview mode requiring further development and funding, the website has already earned her an honorable mention in the2024 congressional App Challenge. Manoj has also delivered a talk at local senior living facilities about cybercrime prevention.“I remember going to my first speech, and I was super nervous,”Manoj said.“What if no one shows up What if I totally mess up ” Her fears were unfounded.
There were so many people who were really interested—— taking notes on their notepads.
“This is supposed to bring people a sense of‘You' re not alone,’” Manoj said.“A lot of people are embarrassed that they got scammed, but this isn't something you should be embarrassed about. It's just a learning experience. You should report it to help make sure it doesn't happen to anyone else.”
Manoj's coding (编码) skills, developed since eighth grade through cybersecurity classes were critical to building Shield Seniors.“I really love the fact that you can solve problems with your computer, and I really like creating,” she said. Beyond her tech achievements, Manoj also plays violin in her school band and volunteers extensively.
24. Why did Manoj create Shield Seniors
A. To win a national technology competition.
B. To help her grandfather recover lost money.
C. To develop her potential skills in cybersecurity.
D. To prevent seniors from experiencing online scams.
25. What does the underlined word“suspicious” mean in paragraph 3
A. Questionable. B. Reliable. C. Exceptional. D. Complex.
26. Which of the following words can best describe Manoj
A. Brave and ambitious. B. Creative and caring.
C. Generous and cooperative. D. Cautious and demanding.
27. What's the best title for the text
A. A New Strategy for Preventing Online Scams
B. A Teen Named 2025 TIME Kid of the Year
C. How a Teen Beat Others and Was Awarded by TIME
D. How a Student Learned Coding and Built a Website
C
A group of children carries a heavy log (原木), debating where it should go. One climbs a tree, catching her shirt on a branch. Another draws a treasure map in the mud. Nearby, no parents direct their actions or warn them to“be careful.” This“wild child summer” trend,featuring free outdoor play, is pushing back against overscheduled days and screen-heavy routines.
Scientists stress this trend matters because unstructured play acts as a brain training ground.“Activities like balancing on logs or discussing game rules improve independence and risk-judgment skills. Swinging, running and jumping help manage emotions by engaging rhythm-sensitive brain regions, while also strengthening the prefrontal cortex (前额皮质), responsible for planning and decision-making,” says Ellen Sandseter, Professor at Queen Maud UniversityCollege.
Nature, as Professor Louise Chawla from University of Colorado Boulder notes, provides an unlimited range of“can I do it ” challenges that man-made structures cannot match. This environment promotes cooperation because it motivates group projects, like castle-building or“cooking” with dirt and flowers. When conflicts arise, kids have a stronger motivation to resolve them, building essential lifelong communication skills. Unlike structured activities, free play lets kids develop executive (执行的) function independently. Without this practice, they may struggle with unpredictable real-life situations later.
Despite the proven benefits, there remain obstacles. Many kids live without safe green play areas nearby. In the U. S., some states still have rules that make it harder for children to explore on their own. Parents may also face safety concerns, schedule pressures, or limited basic facilities. The potential cost of an injury adds another barrier to letting children take risks outdoors.
Experts suggest that even small- scale interactions with natural elements can be beneficial.Bring plants, water, or sand play indoors, or let kids collect leaves or feathers for sensory play.Any amount of nature is better than none.“Playing with nature isn't just good for children,”Chawla says.“It's good for the nature balance. People who spend time in nature as children are more likely to care for it as adults.”
28. What is the“wild child summer” trend mainly about
A. Teens give up screen time completely. B. Children learn survival skills in nature.
C. Kids explore outdoors by themselves. D. Families travel to green areas together.
29. What does Ellen Sandseter try to explain in paragraph 2
A. The approaches to training brain. B. The motivation for unstructured play.
C. The benefits of unstructured play to brain. D. The ways to manage emotions outdoors.
30. What advantage does natural play have over structured activities
A. It improves kids' curiosity in challenges.
B. It strengthens children's risk- judgment skills.
C. It greatly removes conflicts among children.
D. It prepares kids for real- world uncertainties.
31. What do experts advise when safe green areas are unavailable
A. Play with natural materials indoors. B. Inspire kids to join structured sports.
C. Take more family trips on weekends. D. Urge city planners to take measures.
D
One person's trash might be another person's jet fuel(燃料) It sounds strange, but researchers from the University of Illinois Urbana- Champaign believe that they' ve figured out a process to make this a reality—— at least on a small scale.
This week, in Nature Communications, the agricultural engineers shared a strategy for taking food waste, turning it into biofuel, and then“ upgrading” that fuel into jet fuel that can go straight into a plane without requiring any additives or mixing with fossil (化石) fuels. They compared their novel fuel against industry standards and found that it met all the requirements for conventional jet fuel.
“In traditional economic model, we make things, use them, then throw them away,” saidProfessor Yuanhui Zhang, a lead author of the study.“In this project, we take the waste and recover the energy and materials to make a usable product. This fills a gap in the recycling economy.”
The U. S. Environmental Protection Agency says transport accounted for about 29% of greenhouse gas emissions(排放) in the U. S. in 2022. Commercial planes made up 7% of that.Cars have cut emissions lately thanks to electric power. But electric planes only work for short flights—— they don't have enough energy for long trips( jet fuel has 50 times more energy per kilogram than lithium- ion batteries). So planes are left behind in cutting emissions.
Sustainable Aviation Fuel (SAF), made from organic materials, could reduce flight emissions by up to 80% compared to conventional jet fuel. But SAF for planes is hard to make——because its chemical composition doesn't meet strict requirements for jet fuel.
That's where food waste helps: the team collected local food waste and copied the Earth's natural oil- forming process to make crude oil (原油). Then, they removed salt, ash, water, and gas to turn this crude oil into jet fuel.
Right now, this is just a test to show the idea works. But it gives hope: we have lots of food waste, and this could help airlines reach their big goal—— net- zero carbon emissions in three decades.
32. What can we learn about the food-waste fuel
A. It's suitable for plane use. B. It's easy to mass-produce.
C. It's directly turned from biofuel. D. It's cheaper than traditional fuels.
33. What does Professor Yuanhui Zhang think of the project
A. It simplifies energy production. B. It shapes future economic mode.
C. It rejects traditional economy entirely. D. It contributes to recycling practices.
34. What does paragraph 4 mainly focus on
A. How electric cars are environmental. B. How to reduce transport emissions.
C. Why planes cut emissions slowly. D. Why jet fuel consumes more energy.
35. What can be inferred from the last paragraph
A. The food-waste jet fuel is widely used now.
B. Food waste may help airlines' emission goals.
C. Food waste is the best raw material for jet fuel.
D. Net-zero carbon emissions will be achieved soon.
第二节(共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Everyone has experienced a range of emotions: both positive and negative. Unfortunately,people wish to control their emotions but end up being controlled by the same emotions. Someone might get upset, nervous and end up causing more self- destruction or harm. 36 For instance,feeling angry is one that something wrong is happening. Below we' ll explore how to control your emotions.
Acknowledge your emotions. The first step in dealing with your emotions is to acknowledge your current feelings about the situation. 37 It's essential to understand if you' re overreacting to a problem so that you can take steps to start the emotion management process. Acknowledging your feelings will help you understand what you' re dealing with right now to get the best outcomes.
38 Sometimes, your emotions can come from factors like life hardships, stress, being alone, or even not getting enough deep sleep. All these factors have a direct link with human emotions. Therefore, it's essential to practice self- care ideas as a priority for your overall well-being. For instance, having right- brain activities like drawing, playing music, or other activities can also help silence negative thoughts.
Give yourself space. Although being alone too often isn't a good idea for people trying to manage their emotions, it's helpful for others. Therefore, you should also give yourself some space sometimes. 39 Giving yourself space also means that you' ll have enough time for conceptualizing your actual feelings and start the process of trying to manage them slowly.
These positive ways to control your emotions can help you get unstuck from your problems.It's crucial to remember that negative emotions are meant to spotlight issues, not to destroy you.40
A. Emotions are like warning signs.
B. Control your emotions with self- care.
C. Talk about your emotions with a friend.
D. So, use them as signs to find problems to fix.
E. Remember, you can't manage what you don't know.
F. You' ll learn how to stay with certain feelings without fear.
G. This way, you' ll sort out your feelings undisturbed until you feel better.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节，满分30分)
第一节(共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Studying abroad isn't just about traveling and taking photos in beautiful places— it's about 41 headfirst into a culture that's not your own. From the moment I began planning my trip toPortugal, I knew I wanted to fully experience Portuguese life, and doing a homestay (寄宿家庭)was the 42 way to do that. Was I 43 Of course. The unknown is 44 . But often, on the other side of that fear is the kind of experience that shapes your life. That was exactly the 45 for me.
A few months before 46 , I had to fill out a housing form. I 47 don't remember much of what I wrote—— except that I 48 no young kids, please！ And then, a few days before my program started, I met Carla, my homestay mom, and I instantly knew I was in good 49 .Living with her and her two daughters turned out to be the 50 of my time in Portugal. Sure, I 51 homesickness, but their warmth made their home 52 my own. Every night, we'd gather for dinner, exchange stories, and laugh until our sides 53 . When I think about my time abroad, I think of them first. They' re my second family and one of the most meaningful 54 I' ll always want to return to Portugal.
Studying abroad has been one of the most 55 experiences of my life. It has helped me grow independently, broaden my perspective, and deepen my appreciation for our beautiful,diverse world.
41. A. bursting B. diving C. jumping D. running
42. A. elegant B. external C. ideal D. economical
43. A. frustrated B. excited C. embarrassed D. scared
44. A. challenging B. amusing C. appealing D. refreshing
45. A. root B. case C. crisis D. aspect
46. A. departing B. recommending C. assessing D. stretching
47. A. dramatically B. slightly C. honestly D. merely
48. A. estimated B. denied C. assumed D. requested
49. A. arms B. hands C. shape D. charge
50. A. attention B. motivation C. highlight D. framework
51. A. ignored B. clarified C. grasped D. battled
52. A. serve as B. belong to C. feel like D. stand for
53. A. swing B. hurt C. straighten D. calm
54. A. outcomes B. memories C. settings D. reasons
55. A. transformative B. conventional C. complex D. modest
第二节(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Gathering writers, scholars and lovers of language under one roof, the 17th Fu LeiTranslation and Publishing Award celebrated three translators 56 bring French thought and literature into Chinese. On Nov 22, 2025, Huang Hong, Wang Su and Zhao Tianshu 57 (honor) in the categories of literature, social sciences and young talent at the Beijing MinshengArt Museum.
This year, the Fu Lei prize received a total of 54 books 58 (consist) of 32 in the social sciences category and 22 in the literature category for consideration. 59 (found) in 2009, theFu Lei Translation and Publishing Award honors outstanding translations of French works intoChinese 60 promotes their publication and circulation.
At the ceremony, Dong Qiang, chairman of the Fu Lei Translation and Publishing Award committee, emphasized translation is far more than a 61 (mechanic) replacement of words from one language to another. It serves as a critical link in our interconnected society.“Looking at the Fu Lei prize and the efforts of generations of translators, we 62 (firm) believe that no country can succeed in isolation (孤立). Translators are the best bridge connecting us with the world,” he says.
French Ambassador to China, Bertrand Lortholary also emphasized that the work of translators remains essential, even amid rapid advancements in AI technologies.“AI cannot be 63 alternative to human translation, which alone can convey the richness and 64 (precise) of language,” he said.“You do not merely aim 65 (translate) words from one language to another; you convey emotions, ideas, and stories.”
第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)
第一节(满分15分)
假定你是校英文报记者李华，你校近期举办了主题为“Digital Revival: WhereTechnology Meets Tradition”的文化节活动。请你写一篇活动报道，内容包括：
1.活动内容；
2.活动反响。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Digital Revival: Where Technology Meets Tradition
第二节(满分25分)
阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
It was a cool autumn morning when 17-year-old Liam set off into the foggy mountains. His backpack was filled with a butterfly net, a field guide, and a camera. For months, he had hoped to find the rare Golden-winged Butterfly, which was said to live only in these faraway places.
Liam had read every article about the butterfly. He knew its wings had unique golden patterns that shone in sunlight. But what interested him most was a note in an old journal:“The butterfly appears only when the morning dew (露水) is thick and the first ray of sun touches the clover(三叶草).”
As he climbed higher, the path became steeper (陡峭的). The fog made it hard to see, and he tripped over a root. His camera fell out of his bag, but luckily, it wasn't broken. He checked his watch; it was almost 7 o' clock, the time when the sun usually came up.
Suddenly, he heard a soft fluttering sound. He held his breath and slowly turned around.There, on a purple clover, was a butterfly with wings that glowed like gold. But just as he raised his net, a strong wind blew, and the butterfly flew away.
Liam ran after it, but soon lost sight of it. He sat down on a rock, feeling disappointed. He had come so close. Then he remembered the journal's note again. Maybe he had missed something about the clover He stood up and started looking carefully at the clover around him.
To his joy, he found a small clover field where the dew was still thick. And in the center of the field, a group of Golden-winged Butterflies were dancing in the newly appearing sunlight.Liam took out his camera, his hands shaking with excitement. He knew this moment would change how he thought about science trips forever.
注意：
1.续写词数应为150左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Liam carefully approached the clover field, afraid of scaring the butterflies away. After taking dozens of photos, Liam sat down on a rock and thought about this journey.
2025———2026学年高二 12月联考
英语参考答案及评分意见
听力
1-5 BBCCA 6-10 BAACC 11-15 ABBCA 16-20 BACBA
阅读
A篇 本文是一篇应用文。沃特豪斯自然科学艺术奖是澳大利亚南澳大利亚博物馆主办的赛事，旨在鼓励艺术家探索自然世界。
21. B 细节理解题。根据第一段中的“The prize is an opportunity for artists to investigate the world around them andpresent their perspectives on natural science.”可知，该奖项旨在为艺术家提供探索世界、表达对自然科学见解的机会，因此其主要目的是鼓励关于自然与科学的艺术创作。
22. C 推理判断题。根据“What work is eligible ”部分可知，合格作品需满足三个条件：属于摄影以外的视觉艺术、创作时间不早于2025年1月、主题与自然世界或自然科学相关。选项C“一幅关于自然保护区的绘画”符合主题，且创作于2025年满足时间要求。
23. D 细节理解题。根据“What are the key dates ”部分末尾“Finalists’ works will be exhibited at the South AustralianMuseum”可知，决赛选手的作品将在南澳大利亚博物馆进行展览。
B篇 本文是一篇新闻报道，介绍了美国17岁高中生 Tejasvi Manoj因其创建的“Shield Seniors”防诈骗网站，被评为2025年《时代》周刊“年度年轻人”。
24. D 细节理解题。根据第二段中的“Alarmed by the incident, Manoj researched cybercrime and discovered thatscams targeting seniors caused nearly $ 5 billion in losses in 2024.”以及第三段第一句可知，在警觉于祖父的经历后，她通过研究发现该问题的普遍性与严重性，从而决心采取行动。她创建的“Shield Seniors”防诈骗网站是为了预防老年人遭受网络诈骗。
25. A 词义猜测题。根据第三段语境，网站允许用户上传信息以进行“analysis”(分析)并举报“scam”(欺诈)。因此，“suspicious”修饰的信息应具有不确定性、可能存在问题的特征。
26. B 推理判断题。综合全文信息，Creative (有创造力的)体现在 Manoj创造性地构建了“Shield Seniors”网站这一解决方案；Caring (有爱心的/关心他人的)则体现在她希望保护老年人的初衷和广泛参与志愿者活动(“volunteers extensively”)以及希望通过行动让人们感到“不孤单”的表述中。
27. B 主旨大意题。通读全文可知，本文主要介绍了美国17岁高中生 Tejasvi Manoj因其创建的“Shield Seniors”防诈骗网站，被评为2025年《时代》周刊“年度年轻人”。
C篇 本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了“野孩子之夏”，即无成人监督的户外自由玩耍趋势，阐述其对儿童大脑发育、社交技能的益处，以及其面临的现实障碍，并给出相关建议。
28. C 细节理解题。根据第一段中“This‘wild child summer’ trend, featuring free outdoor play…”可知，该趋势的核心是孩子在户外自由探索。
29. C 细节理解题。根据第二段内容可知，Ellen Sandseter说：“像平衡原木或讨论游戏规则这样的活动可以提高独立性和风险判断能力。摇摆、跑步和跳跃通过参与对节奏敏感的大脑区域来帮助调节情绪，同时也改善了负责计划和决策的前额皮质。”Ellen Sandseter解释了无监管的户外玩耍对大脑发育的好处。
30. D 推理判断题。第三段最后两句提到与有组织的活动不同，自由游戏可以让孩子独立发展执行力。如果没有这种练习，他们以后可能会在不可预测的现实生活中挣扎。由此可推断，其优势是让孩子适应现实世界的不确定性。
31. A 细节理解题。最后一段首句和后续例子明确建议 small-scale interactions，并提到 Bring plants, water, or sandplay indoors 可知 A项正确。
D篇 本文是一篇说明文，介绍美国伊利诺伊大学厄巴纳——香槟分校研究人员将餐厨废物转化为航空燃料的一项新成果。
32. A 细节理解题。根据第二段内容可知，研究人员将餐厨废物转化为生物燃料，再“升级为”航空燃料，可以直接使用，不需要任何添加剂或混合化石燃料使用，并且这种燃料也符合传统航空燃料的所有标准和要求。这说明该燃料适合作为飞机燃料使用。
33. D 细节理解题。根据第三段张教授的话可知，在传统经济模式中，我们制造东西，使用它们，然后扔掉它们，在这个项目中，研究人员把废物回收，重新获得能源和材料，做成有用的产品。这填补了循环经济的空白。由此可推知，张教授认为此项目促进了废物再利用实践。
34. C 段落大意题。第四段先给出“… transport accounted for about 29% of greenhouse gas emissions(排放) in theU. S. in 2022. Commercial planes made up 7% of that.”的排放数据，接着对比指出“Cars have cut emissions lately, thanks to electric power”,但“electric planes only work for short flights—— they don't have enough energy for long trips”,最终得出“planes are left behind in cutting emissions”的结论，整段的核心是解释飞机减排速度慢的原因。
35. B 推理判断题。最后一段提到“… we have lots of food waste, and this could help airlines reach their big goal——net-zero carbon emissions in three decades.”,表明这种将餐厨废物转化为航空燃料的新方法，能助力航空公司实现碳净零排放目标，由此可推断，餐厨废物可能有助于航空公司实现排放目标。
七选五 本文是一篇说明文，主要探讨了情绪管理的方法。文章指出，人们常常希望控制情绪却反被情绪控制。针对这一问题，作者提出了几种有效的情绪管理策略。
36. A 上文提到情绪可能导致自我伤害，下文举例说明“感到愤怒意味着有错误的事情发生”。A项“情绪就像警告信号”承上启下，既总结了情绪可能带来的危害，又引出了下文将情绪视为问题信号的观点。
37. E 上文强调处理情绪的第一步是“承认当前感受”。E项“记住，你无法管理你不知道的东西”通过“你不知道的东西”指代未识别的感受，并点明“承认”是“管理”的前提，逻辑紧密，是对上文的进一步阐释。
38. B 此空后文提到有时，你的情绪可能来自生活困难、压力、孤独，甚至没有足够的深度睡眠等因素。所有这些因素都与人类的情感有着直接的联系。因此，将自我照顾的想法作为你整体健康的优先事项是至关重要的。例如，进行右脑活动，如绘画、演奏音乐或其他活动，也有助于消除消极思想。B项“通过自我照顾来控制情绪”概括了本段内容。
39. G 上文建议“给自己一些空间”。G项“这样，你就可以不受打扰地整理情绪，直到感觉好些”直接说明了这一方法带来的具体好处，与上文构成“方法——结果”的连贯逻辑。
40. D 上文总结指出“负面情绪旨在凸显问题，而非摧毁你”。D项“所以，利用它们作为发现待解决问题的信号”以结论性标志词“所以”开头，呼应上文的“旨在凸显”，并对前文内容进行最终提炼，是简洁有力的结尾句。
完形填空 本文是一篇记叙文，通过作者在葡萄牙留学、参加寄宿家庭项目的亲身经历，探讨了海外留学带来的文化沉浸与个人成长。
41. B 考查动词。作者想“一头扎进”异国文化， dive headfirst into…为固定搭配，表示“全身心投入”。
42. C 考查形容词。在作者看来， homestay是“完美”途径， ideal与 fully experience直接呼应。
43. D 考查形容词。面对未知，作者自然感到“害怕”， scared与后文 fear 相呼应。
44. A 考查形容词。未知总是“充满挑战”， challenging 解释为何会产生恐惧。
45. B 考查名词。句型 That was exactly the case for me 为固定表达，意为“对我来说正是如此”。
46. A 考查动词。根据前文A few months before及后文作者已经记不清填写内容了可知，是在“出发”之前的几个月。
47. C 考查副词。作者坦言“老实说”已经记不清大部分所写的内容了。
48. D 考查动词。表格中作者“请求”不要小孩， requested与 please！构成礼貌祈使。
49. B 考查名词。此处 in good hands 为固定短语，意为“在可靠的人(或机构)手中，得到妥善的处理或照顾”，与instantly knew 呼应。
50. C 考查名词。寄宿生活成为葡萄牙之行的“最精彩部分”， highlight 为名词“高光时刻”。
51. D 考查动词。作者“与乡愁作斗争”， battled 体现克服过程。
52. C 考查动词短语。 make their home feel like my own 为固定表达, feel like“感觉像”。
53. B 考查动词。 laugh until our sides hurt 为英语习语，意思是“笑到肚子疼”。
54. D 考查名词。他们成为“我始终想重返葡萄牙”的最有意义的原因之一， reasons 与 return to Portugal 构成因果。
55. A 考查形容词。根据后文作者列举的变化可知，留学被总结为“最具改造性的”经历。
语法填空 本文是一篇新闻报道，介绍了第17届傅雷翻译出版奖的颁奖情况，并重点强调了在当今世界翻译工作所承载的实际重要性及人文价值。
56. who/that 考查定语从句。此处“translators”是先行词，空处在从句中作主语，故用关系代词 who/that。
57. were honored 考查动词的时态和语态。主语为三人，与“honor”之间构成被动关系；根据时间状语“On Nov 22，2025”可知，动作发生在过去，故用一般过去时的被动语态。
58. consisting 考查现在分词。此处为现在分词短语作后置定语，修饰名词“books”，相当于定语从句“that/whichconsists of…”。
59. Founded 考查过去分词。此处为过去分词短语作状语，表示被动和完成，其逻辑主语“the Fu Lei Translation andPublishing Award”与动词“found”之间为被动关系，意为“(被)创立于2009年”。
60. and 考查连词。连接“honors outstanding translations…”与“promotes their publication……………”两个并列的谓语动词，表示动作的顺承与并列。
61. mechanical 考查形容词。此处用形容词作定语，修饰名词“replacemet”。
62. firmly 考查副词。修饰动词“believe”，需用副词形式，形容词“firm”的副词形式为“firmly”(坚定地)。
63. an 考查冠词。名词“alternative”为可数名词单数，且在此处表泛指；其发音以元音音素开头，故用不定冠词“an”。
64. precision 考查名词。与前面的“richness”由“and”连接，构成并列结构，共同作动词“convey”的宾语，故需用名词形式。形容词“precise”的名词形式为“precision”(精确性)。
65. to translate 考查非谓语动词。固定短语“aim to do sth.”意为“旨在做某事”，故动词 translate 需用其不定式形式 to translate。
书面表达
Digital Revival: Where Technology Meets Tradition
Last Friday, our school hosted the remarkable Cultural Festival themed“Digital Revival: Where Technology MeetsTradition”, drawing enthusiastic participation from the entire campus.
The event featured a series of activities where students experienced firsthand how technology preserves cultural heritage. Through 3D scanning workshops, we learned to digitally file delicate artworks. The virtual restoration session allowed us to rebuild ancient structures using modeling software, while VR expeditions transported us to historical sites worldwide. These interactive demonstrations not only vividly illustrated technology's crucial role in protecting our cultural legacy, but also inspired us to consider how we might contribute to this meaningful work.
The festival concluded with overwhelmingly positive feedback, with many students expressing a renewed appreciation for both technological innovation and cultural preservation.
读后续写
Liam carefully approached the clover field, afraid of scaring the butterflies away. He moved step by step, with his camera held tightly in his hands. The morning dew on the clover wet his shoes, but he didn't care. When he got close enough, he saw the golden patterns on the butterflies' wings clearly. They shone beautifully in the sunlight, just like what he had read in the articles. He quickly adjusted the camera settings and started taking photos. Each click of the camera made him extremely excited. The butterflies didn't seem to notice him; they just kept dancing among the clover.
After taking dozens of photos, Liam sat down on a rock and thought about this journey. He met troubles like the steep path and strong wind, but he never stopped. This experience let him know science trips need patience and careful
observation. The old journal's note helped a lot, telling him to notice small things. He looked at the photos and smiled. He knew these photos would help his future butterfly study. This search for the butterfly was more than a trip; it was a useful lesson he'd always remember.
书面表达
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第四档(13分~15分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
1)内容完整，条理清楚；
2)交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际对象的需求，体现出较强的语言运用能力；
3)完全达到了预期的写作目的。
第三档(9分~12分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
1)内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；
2)所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；
3)语法或用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解；
4)基本达到了预期的写作目的。
第二档(4分~8分)
未恰当完成试题规定的任务。
1)内容不完整；
2)所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对写作内容的理解；
3)未能清楚地传达信息。
第一档(1分~3分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
1)写了少量相关信息；
2)语法或用词方面错误较多，严重影响了对写作内容的理解。
不得分(0分)
未传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。
读后续写
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档(21~25分)
1)与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；
2)所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；
3)有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第四档(16~20分)
1)与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；
2)所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但不影响意义表达；
3)比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。
第三档(11~15分)
1)与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
2)应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，是有一些错误，但不影响意义表达；
3)应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。
第二档(6~10分)
1)与所给短文有一定的关系，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；
2)语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达；
3)较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。
第一档(1~5分)
1)与所提供短文和开头语的衔接较差；
2)语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；
3)缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。
不得分(0分)
白卷、内容太少无法评判或所写内容与所提供内容无关。
听力材料
Text 1
W: I have informed everyone that there will be a meeting this afternoon. Now what should I do
M: Great ！ You need to check the meeting process. I' ve almost got the meeting materials ready.
Text 2
W: Is everything to your satisfaction, sir
M: The food here is not as good as it used to be. Did you get a new chef here
W: No. Our restaurant owner changed the recipes.
Text 3
M: I'm going to set up a study group for the final exams.
W: Great ！ Count me in. We can meet at the school library.
M: Okay. I think we can meet twice a week, from 5:00 p. m. to 9:00 p. m. What do you think
Text 4
M: Suzy, have you booked the flight to San Francisco
W: Yes. Why do you ask that
M: I can give you a ride to the airport.
W: That couldn't be better. My car is being repaired.
Text 5
W: I like listening to different kinds of music such as jazz music and classical music. What about you
M: I enjoy rock music. I like the different types of instruments used in it.
W: That's a good reason to like rock music. Who's your favorite rock star
Text 6
W: Hi, Karl ！I' ve got a new job. I'm working in the new pet shop. You know, the one next to the supermarket.
M: What a big change ！
W: I know ！I thought I might miss working in the library but I don't. I like the present job.
M: So how is this job different
W: I can talk with customers. And I' ve already learnt so much about looking after animals. I like my manager. She will always take the time to show me how to do something if I'm not sure about it.
M: That's good.
Text 7
M: I just finished reading an article about how much plastic waste there is on the beach. It made me sad.
W: Well, if you walk on a beach you can see that it is true. On some beaches, there is plastic waste everywhere. Luckily,some people came up with a good idea to help solve this problem.
M: Really What did they do
W: They made a huge fish called Goby and placed it on the beach. The fish's mouth is open so people can put their litter
in it.
M: Wow ！ That's cool and it helps keep the beach clean.
Text 8
W: Good evening. We' re the party from Limo Car Rental s. We' ve reserved a table for this evening.
M: Welcome ！ But we' re expecting you tomorrow. Let me check ... Yes, Limo Cars, party of five for 7:30 on Tuesday. So it's tomorrow, not today. The reservation was made by Mr. Jones on Friday.
W: Yes, at first, we reserved for Tuesday, but we changed it to Monday instead. Didn't you get a call this afternoon
M: No. At least, there's no record of that change here in the list. Perhaps Mr. Jones forgot to call us. However, don't worry too much. We may have a table free in half an hour if you'd like to wait.
W: OK. We' ll do that.
Text 9
M: Hi, Katie. Are you all right You don't look well.
W: No, my back hurts. I was skating with my sister and I fell over. The pain was terrible ！ I'm sorry, but I can't play badminton with you today.
M: It's OK. Shall we go for a coffee I don't have to be at my class until two. And I don't have much homework today.
W: OK. I'm a bit worried about my back. My dad has a bad back. It hurts sometimes. I don't want to be like that.
M: Well, my mum was the same, but now she does Tai Chi and she says that really helps. Maybe you can try it too.
W: Really But isn't Tai Chi for old people
M: I'm sure that young people can do Tai Chi too, although it's true that people in my mum's class are about the same age as her. But you don't have to go to a class—— there are lots of videos online that show you how to do it.
W: Good idea ！ Would you like to try it too
M: Why not Let's meet tomorrow evening and find some videos. Seven o' clock at my house
W: Sorry, I can't. I have to go to my piano lessons. But Thursday evening is good.
Text 10
The US Postal system was established on July 26th, 1775, with founding father, Benjamin Franklin as the firstPostmaster General. It set into motion much of what we think of today as mail delivery. And that system mostly relies on the tireless dedication of US mail carriers. If you think postal delivery people riding around on scooters is a new thing,we' re here to tell you: mailmen have been delivering mail by scooter for more than a century. Did you know that women have been working as mail carriers since the turn of the 20th century Women were initially employed only to service rural routes. However, by 1917, female mail carriers had begun taking city routes. Today, more than one-third of all letter carriers are women. The first official airmail was delivered on May 15th, 1918. Officer James Clark Edgerton was the youngest of the six pilots who first began to fly the mail. He got the job because of his father who worked for the US PostOffice Department, according to the Smithsonian Postal Museum. Then about another pilot of the six…

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