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楚雄州民族中学高三年级11月月考
英语试题
本试卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1、答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3、非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4、考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C.
1. Where is Jennifer working now
A. In a hospital. B. In a college. C. In a drugstore.
2. What does the man advise the woman to buy
A. A red skirt. B. A white sweater. C. A pair of blue jeans.
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Business partners. C. Boss and secretary.
4. What does the woman ask John to do
A. Do his homework. B. Take the piano class. C. Pick up the package.
5. How much will the man pay
A. $15. B. $30. C. $60.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Inexperienced drivers.
B. A terrible car accident.
C. Safe driving on the road.
7. When does the woman feel nervous
A. A car cuts in at will.
B. A car is close behind her car.
C. A car turns without turn signals.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. How long did it take to get to Nanjing before
A. 2 hours. B. 1.5 hours. C. 1 hour.
9. Why did the man come to China
A. To have a trip. B. To work as a teacher. C. To visit a Chinese university.
10. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. On a train. B. At a ticket office. C. In a waiting room.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
11. How long has the man played the piano up to now
A. For 10 years. B. For 15 years. C. For 20 years.
12. What do we know about the man
A. He started to write music at ten.
B. His CDs have become the best seller.
C. He enjoys giving concerts in schools.
13. How does the woman like the man
A. Excellent. B. Ordinary. C. Just so-so.
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. Where does Amanda want to spend her summer holiday
A. In Beijing. B. In New York. C. In London.
15. What does Amanda’s mother want her to do
A. Learn about Chinese culture.
B. Look after her grandmother.
C. Offer some help on the farm.
16. Who did the man plan to go to London with
A. His friends. B. His mother. C. His grandmother.
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
17. What will happen in 2022
A. A new space lab will be built.
B. The first space hotel will open.
C. Astronauts will live in the space hotel.
18. How many guests can the space hotel hold at a time
A. Two. B. Four. C. Six.
19. What can guests do in the space hotel
A. Cook food. B. Watch movies. C. Have a video chat.
20. What does the speaker think of the space trip
A. Relaxing. B. Dangerous. C. Expensive.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Gold Coast Theme Parks come in all shapes and sizes and whether you like roller coasters or petting furry animals, you’re sure to find something.
Movie World
As the only movie-related theme park in Australia, Movie World features an outstanding coaster and a good handful of movie-related rides, enabling you to experience an exciting adventure full of Hollywood’s charm. Get behind-the-scenes movie information and stunt shows (特技表演) to keep the whole family entertained for the best part of a day.
Sea World
With an obvious emphasis on things that live in the water, Sea World has a fantastic range of fish, sharks, dolphins, seals, polar bears and other animals in the water. With a bunch of great rides, water slides and roller coasters, Sea World is known as the best all-round theme park on the Gold Coast.
Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary
Crocodiles kangaroos, koalas and almost all of the other famous Australian native animals are living in Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary. You can look at them, feed and play with some of them or just experience the fantastic 27-hectare bushland setting — an oasis (乐土) of wildlife among the Gold Coast bustle.
Tropical Fruit World
Tropical Fruit World is a farm growing over 500 unusual tropical fruits from all over the world, with mini golf, an animal park and rides for the little ones. This farm has been a pioneer for eco-tourism since 1983. Admission is $ 36 for adults and $ 17 for kids and free for kids under 5.
21. Which theme park should a film fan consider
A. Movie World. B. Sea World.
C. Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary. D. Tropical Fruit World.
22. What can you do in Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary
A. Interact with some animals. B. Experience a jungle cruise.
C. Watch stunt shows. D. Ride water slides.
23. How much will you pay if you visit Tropical Fruit World with your 11-year-old twins
A. $89. B. $70. C. $53. D. $36.
B
Jason Haney is a construction worker from Indiana. When he began his current job as foreman on a site opposite a children’s hospital, this awesome dad and hobby artist had a brilliant idea.
Haney noticed that many of the sick kids at the Memorial Children’s Hospital in South Bend could not go outside, and his construction site was the only view from their hospital rooms. So together with his teenage daughter, Haney built a 2.5 meter tall plywood (胶合板) cut out of Waldo from the famous Where’s Waldo books.
Every day, the workers hide Waldo in a different spot on the construction site, giving the children a new challenge. As soon as Haney finds out that the kids have found Waldo, the cutout gets moved to a new secret hiding spot and the game begins again.
Heidi Prescott, a spokeswoman for Beacon Health System, which runs the hospital, said the project began one winter when the workers put up an inflatable (可充气的) snowman for the children. The kids loved the idea and from there it quickly developed into the Waldo cutout.
“It didn’t take long to catch on, the kids whether they are in the rooms or in a play area, they look across as soon as they get to the window,” Prescott told ABC News. “They will look all over the building, point and exclaim (惊叫) ‘I found him!’”
Haney, meanwhile, simply enjoys knowing that he can brighten the children’s day and make them forget that they are in hospital for a few minutes. Jason has said over and over again, “All I did this for was to make the kids smile.”
Haney even created a Facebook group where he leaves clues as to where Waldo might be hiding and the children can post photos of their findings. The project has been a huge success, with hundreds of people sharing photos of Waldo and happy parents thanking Haney for making an otherwise difficult visit to the hospital just that little bit more enjoyable.
24. Why did Jason Haney create the Waldo cutout
A. To bring joy to sick kids in the nearby hospital.
B. To make his construction site more famous.
C. To practice his hobby of art with his daughter.
D. To attract more attention to the hospital’s work.
25. What can we learn about the Waldo game from paragraph 3
A. The kids need to find Waldo once a week.
B. The game ends when all kids find Waldo.
C. The game is kept going by moving Waldo regularly.
D. The workers hide Waldo in the same place every day.
26. What can be inferred from the last two paragraphs
A. Parents think the Waldo project makes hospital stays easier for kids.
B. Haney’s next project will be more successful than the Waldo one.
C. The Facebook group is only used to share hints about Waldo’s location.
D. Haney posted photos online to encourage the ill kids.
27. Which of the following words can best describe Jason Haney
A. Selfless and humorous. B. Kind-hearted and creative.
C. Shy and quiet. D. Considerate and serious.
C
Urban green spaces have long been tied to better public health, but limited city budgets often leave parks overgrown and underused. A groundbreaking study published in Urban Health Journal points to an unexpected solution gaining traction across North America: community-run gardens. These grassroots projects, where residents collectively tend plots of land, are proving to be both cost-effective and socially reformed.
Researchers tracked 27 community gardens in Toronto over three years, documenting measurable benefits. Nearby households reported 31% fewer cases of anxiety compared to neighborhoods without such gardens, while local children showed 24% higher levels of physical activity — likely due to regular outdoor play among the plots. The gardens, typically filled with tomato vines, sunflower patches, and public tool sheds, also boosted stronger social bonds: 78% of participants cited “making new friends” as a key benefit, reducing feelings of loneliness in densely populated areas.
These initiatives thrive (蓬勃发展) on minimal funding. Most start with funds under $2,000, relying on donated soil, recycled wooden planters, and volunteer labor. The Toronto Green Space Alliance, which manages 15 of these sites, notes that maintenance costs average just $300 annually per garden — far cheaper than the $12,000 yearly upkeep (维修费) for a small city park.
Yet success isn’t universal. In Vancouver, two gardens saw declining participation after initial enthusiasm, with plots abandoned due to debates over water usage and crop ownership. Despite these challenges, the Alliance plans to fund 12 new gardens in Montreal next year, emphasizing better conflict-resolution training for organizers.
“Cities don’t need million-dollar projects to build healthier communities,” says lead researcher Dr. Elena Marquez. “Sometimes a trowel (小铲子) and a packet of seeds are enough.”
28. The underlined phrase “gaining traction” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. lacking practical value B. facing severe opposition
C causing widespread debate D. becoming increasingly popular
29. What does the study on Toronto’s community gardens reveal
A. They require large initial investments.
B. They have replaced traditional city parks.
C. They reduce residents’ mental health issues.
D. They only benefit elderly people’s physical health.
30. Why does the author cite the case of Vancouver’s gardens
A. To note weaknesses of community gardens.
B. To tell funding shortages cause project failure.
C. To explain community gardens don’t always succeed.
D. To compare Toronto and Vancouver’s gardening practices.
31. What is the best title of the text
A. Million-dollar Urban Park Projects
B. Urban Nature and Its Many Forms
C. The High Cost of Maintaining Gardens
D. Community Gardens Boosting Urban Health
D
When visiting a doctor in the future, you can expect to be accompanied by a virtual version of yourself. This so-called digital twin will be a working model of your body that can be shown on a physician’s computer screen. Updated with your latest vital signs, it will help the doctor make an accurate diagnosis (诊断) and provide personalized treatments for the patients.
No matter how unreal this might seem, the researchers at Queen Mary University of London (QMUL) already use computer simulations (模拟) of the hearts of patients to test different treatments for a heart disorder. It would be far too dangerous to experiment this way on someone’s real heart.
Digital twins are starting to be seen everywhere. They can not only monitor the health of jet engines on airliners, but also help carmakers spend fewer years on the development of new models by simulating test drives and crashes. All this is being powered by recent progress in AI, which gives twins the ability to make predictions about their physical counterparts (对应的事物), and adjust themselves based on new information.
Digital twins make it easier for humans to solve challenging problems, allowing people to have a look into the future. For businesses, this should mean better designs and operations. For society, the promise is also fascinating: personalized health care, and ways to prevent the earth from environmental disasters.
Could these virtual twins go out of control They might if they are programmed badly, or hacked into. Digital twins will take in mountains of data, some of it wrong and much of it raising concerns about privacy. Yet those risks are a natural part of technological progress. The appearance of the digital mirror world will raise new questions, but its potential benefits are already easy to see.
32. Which of the following best describes a digital twin
A. A virtual copy. B. A video game. C. A toy model. D. A medical database.
33. Why do researchers at QMUL use computer simulations of hearts
A. To reduce the time of the heart operation.
B. To use real hearts much more conveniently.
C. To help increase the patients’ recovery rates.
D. To avoid the danger of experimenting on real hearts.
34. How does AI contribute to the development of digital twins
A. It increases the efficiency of simulations through data analysis.
B. It creates accurate digital copies for medical and industrial use.
C. It enables digital twins to predict results and adapt on their own.
D. It improves virtual models by adding real-time monitoring features.
35. What is the author’s overall attitude toward the development of digital twins
A. Cautiously optimistic B. Strongly supportive
C. Clearly critical D. Deeply ambiguous
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
In our fast-paced, interconnected world, we are often encouraged to constantly seek external recognition and build vast social networks. Yet, the most profound and often overlooked relationship is the one we have with ourselves. ____36____
Cultivate mindful self-awareness. ____37____ Instead of reacting automatically or containing feelings, pause and ask, “What am I feeling right now, and why ” This could be through keeping a diary or simply taking a quiet moment during a walk.
____38____ We are often our own harshest critics. Try to speak to yourself with the same kindness and encouragement you would offer a dear friend facing a challenge. When you make a mistake or fall short of a goal, instead of jumping into self-criticism, acknowledge the setback as a part of being human. Treat yourself with patience and understanding, recognizing that imperfection is universal.
Set and honor your boundaries. A crucial part of self-respect is knowing your limits and communicating them clearly. ____39____ By protecting your mental and emotional space, you send a powerful message to yourself that your well-being is a priority.
Nurture your interests and curiosity. Spend quality time with yourself doing things that you genuinely enjoy, independent of others. This could be reading, learning a new skill, exploring nature, or creating art. ____40____ And it can also strengthen the joy of your own company.
Ultimately, the journey to a richer, more real engagement with the world begins in the quiet spaces of our own hearts. By becoming our own best friend, we build an unshakable inner heart. From this place of strength and self-acceptance, we can then extend genuine kindness, understanding and love to the world around us.
A. Practice self-forgiveness.
B. Become our own harshest critics.
C. So, how should we get along with ourselves
D. What should we do to become the best version of ourselves
E. This means regularly checking your own thoughts and emotions.
F. Investing in your own hobbies and passions can build self-esteem.
G. This includes saying “no” to demands that consume your energy beyond your ability.
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In the summer of 2018, I decided to do a solo expedition (独自探险) across Antarctica. To get some ____41____, I did a two-week training course. I learned all the ____42____: how to camp in the snow, how to pull a sled and what clothing to wear. In October, I flew to Antarctica from Punta Arenas. I’d allowed 70 days, which would make it the longest ____43____ one-way expedition across Antarctica
I only took ____44____. I didn’t even take a hairbrush. The first few days were ____45____. The winds were about 60 mph, and my sled weighed 120kg. Even if the visibility is good, you can’t ____46____ much — it’s a white horizon. I was on the move for 13 to 15 hours a day.
Then, I found the conditions to be much worse. There was more sastrugi (雪脊) and it felt colder. The last 40 hours were really hard. I ____47____ about 14 times every two hours. As a result, I fell behind ____48____. In the end, I ____49____ 922 miles and fell more than 100 miles short of my goal. Towards the end of my trip, a helicopter flew to pick me up. The ____50____ I felt when I saw it in the distance was unbelievable.
It took me a while before I was ____51____ of what I’d achieved, because I had failed to reach my ____52____ goal, but I’ve learned it’s ____53____ to move the goalposts(球门柱). I don’t agree with the idea of conquering (征服) somewhere. You treat places with ____54____ and hope they’ll allow you ____55____ passage.
41. A. donation B. experience C. attention D. rescue
42. A. basics B. risks C. benefits D. aids
43. A. cooperative B. romantic C. unsupported D. abnormal
44. A. companions B. necessities C. cashes D. credits
45. A. pleasant B. calm C. tough D. lucky
46. A. talk B. hear C. feel D. see
47. A. fell over B. dropped out C. looked away D. put up
48. A. fundraising B. supply C. schedule D. homework
49. A. measured B. designed C. searched D. covered
50. A. burden B. relief C. pain D. anxiety
51. A. proud B. skeptical C. shy D. ashamed
52. A. insignificant B. unbearable C. disturbing D. original
53. A. regrettable B. unnecessary C. acceptable D. improper
54. A. respect B. courage C. carelessness D. coldness
55. A. narrow B. safe C. limited D. challenging
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Imagine holding an object that holds the shine of the ocean ____56____ the soft light of the moon. This is the wonder of mother-of-pearl inlay (螺钿), an old craft that ____57____ (protect) as cultural heritage. Using the shiny inside part of shells, ____58____ gives out light with hidden colors, artists create works that seem alive.
The making process is like ____59____ quiet dance. Workers first choose shells that shine with natural color. These are cut into thin ____60____ (piece), each shaped to fit part of a pattern. With a special natural glue, they place each piece into a soft painted surface, ____61____ (make) designs like flowers or flying birds. After the surface dries, it is polished until smooth like glass, making the shell pieces look like they are floating on dark water.
When light hits the ____62____ (finish) work, something special happens. The inlaid patterns glow with a soft light. As you move, the colors change ____63____ (gentle), turning from silver-blue to soft pink, like a morning sky caught inside. This living beauty is why people ____64____ (love) mother-of-pearl art for so long.
More than just pretty art, these works carry a deeper message. They show us that true beauty comes _____65_____ working slowly and respecting nature, helping us remember that everything around us has its own story.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华，你校将举办一场以“Our Game, Our Art”为主题的体育文化节。请给你校的交换生Ethan写一封邮件，邀请他参加。内容包括：
1.活动时间、地点；
2.活动内容（比如体操，民族舞等）；
3.邀请他参加的原因。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Ethan,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In my childhood, I tried many activities, and most of them were chosen by Mom. She would always say, “Join the swim team, Tara. Your sister is a good swimmer, so you should be too.” But she didn’t know that I was really scared of water. Even though I was afraid, I had to do this activity that made me nervous.
Every Saturday was a struggle. I would ask Mom with all my heart not to make me go to the swim meet. But most of the time, I didn’t succeed. When the starting gun went off with a loud sound, I would gather all my courage and strength and jump into the cold water. I would swim as fast as I could to the other side of the pool, but I would always see the other swimmers pass me easily.
But I didn’t give up completely. The reason was my dad. When I finally reached the edge of the pool, tired and defeated, he would be there with a warm, dry towel. He would tell me that he was proud of my hard work. His words and presence were like a life buoy, keeping me going in this uncertain situation.
Then, a big turning point came. Our school orchestra (管弦乐队) came to our class and gave a performance. The drums were just annoying, and the flutes were boring. But when I heard the violin… oh, that was different. It made the most beautiful sound I had ever heard. My heart started to dance with its melody.
For the first time in my life, I was very happy. And what’s more, the orchestra director gave me a permission slip (许可单) for my parents to sign, asking me to try out for the first seat in the community orchestra. This was a new start, a glimmer of hope in a journey that had been full of challenges and uncertainties.
注意：
（1）续写词数应为150左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: Tightly holding the permission slip, I ran all the way home after school.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: Finally came the tryout for the first seat.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
答案版
楚雄州民族中学高三年级11月月考
英语试题
本试卷满分150分，考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1、答题前，先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试题卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上的指定位置。
2、选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3、非选择题的作答：用签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试题卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4、考试结束后，请将本试题卷和答题卡一并上交。
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例: How much is the shirt
A. 19.15. B. 9.18. C. 9.15.
答案是C.
1. Where is Jennifer working now
A. In a hospital. B. In a college. C. In a drugstore.
【答案】B
2. What does the man advise the woman to buy
A. A red skirt. B. A white sweater. C. A pair of blue jeans.
【答案】A
3. What is the probable relationship between the speakers
A. Mother and son. B. Business partners. C. Boss and secretary.
【答案】C
4. What does the woman ask John to do
A. Do his homework. B. Take the piano class. C. Pick up the package.
【答案】C
5. How much will the man pay
A. $15. B. $30. C. $60.
【答案】A
第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
6. What are the speakers mainly talking about
A. Inexperienced drivers.
B. A terrible car accident.
C. Safe driving on the road.
7. When does the woman feel nervous
A. A car cuts in at will.
B. A car is close behind her car.
C. A car turns without turn signals.
【答案】6. C 7. B
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
8. How long did it take to get to Nanjing before
A. 2 hours. B. 1.5 hours. C. 1 hour.
9. Why did the man come to China
A. To have a trip. B. To work as a teacher. C. To visit a Chinese university.
10. Where does the conversation probably take place
A. On a train. B. At a ticket office. C. In a waiting room.
【答案】8. A 9. B 10. C
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
11. How long has the man played the piano up to now
A. For 10 years. B. For 15 years. C. For 20 years.
12. What do we know about the man
A. He started to write music at ten.
B. His CDs have become the best seller.
C. He enjoys giving concerts in schools.
13. How does the woman like the man
A. Excellent. B. Ordinary. C. Just so-so.
【答案】11. A 12. C 13. A
听下面一段对话，回答以下小题。
14. Where does Amanda want to spend her summer holiday
A. In Beijing. B. In New York. C. In London.
15. What does Amanda’s mother want her to do
A. Learn about Chinese culture.
B. Look after her grandmother.
C. Offer some help on the farm.
16. Who did the man plan to go to London with
A. His friends. B. His mother. C. His grandmother.
【答案】14. B 15. A 16. A
听下面一段独白，回答以下小题。
17. What will happen in 2022
A. A new space lab will be built.
B. The first space hotel will open.
C. Astronauts will live in the space hotel.
18. How many guests can the space hotel hold at a time
A. Two. B. Four. C. Six.
19. What can guests do in the space hotel
A. Cook food. B. Watch movies. C. Have a video chat.
20. What does the speaker think of the space trip
A. Relaxing. B. Dangerous. C. Expensive.
【答案】17. B 18. B 19. C 20. C
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Gold Coast Theme Parks come in all shapes and sizes and whether you like roller coasters or petting furry animals, you’re sure to find something.
Movie World
As the only movie-related theme park in Australia, Movie World features an outstanding coaster and a good handful of movie-related rides, enabling you to experience an exciting adventure full of Hollywood’s charm. Get behind-the-scenes movie information and stunt shows (特技表演) to keep the whole family entertained for the best part of a day.
Sea World
With an obvious emphasis on things that live in the water, Sea World has a fantastic range of fish, sharks, dolphins, seals, polar bears and other animals in the water. With a bunch of great rides, water slides and roller coasters, Sea World is known as the best all-round theme park on the Gold Coast.
Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary
Crocodiles kangaroos, koalas and almost all of the other famous Australian native animals are living in Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary. You can look at them, feed and play with some of them or just experience the fantastic 27-hectare bushland setting — an oasis (乐土) of wildlife among the Gold Coast bustle.
Tropical Fruit World
Tropical Fruit World is a farm growing over 500 unusual tropical fruits from all over the world, with mini golf, an animal park and rides for the little ones. This farm has been a pioneer for eco-tourism since 1983. Admission is $ 36 for adults and $ 17 for kids and free for kids under 5.
21. Which theme park should a film fan consider
A. Movie World. B. Sea World.
C. Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary. D. Tropical Fruit World.
22. What can you do in Currumbin Wildlife Sanctuary
A. Interact with some animals. B. Experience a jungle cruise.
C. Watch stunt shows. D. Ride water slides.
23. How much will you pay if you visit Tropical Fruit World with your 11-year-old twins
A. $89. B. $70. C. $53. D. $36.
【答案】21. A 22. A 23. B
B
Jason Haney is a construction worker from Indiana. When he began his current job as foreman on a site opposite a children’s hospital, this awesome dad and hobby artist had a brilliant idea.
Haney noticed that many of the sick kids at the Memorial Children’s Hospital in South Bend could not go outside, and his construction site was the only view from their hospital rooms. So together with his teenage daughter, Haney built a 2.5 meter tall plywood (胶合板) cut out of Waldo from the famous Where’s Waldo books.
Every day, the workers hide Waldo in a different spot on the construction site, giving the children a new challenge. As soon as Haney finds out that the kids have found Waldo, the cutout gets moved to a new secret hiding spot and the game begins again.
Heidi Prescott, a spokeswoman for Beacon Health System, which runs the hospital, said the project began one winter when the workers put up an inflatable (可充气的) snowman for the children. The kids loved the idea and from there it quickly developed into the Waldo cutout.
“It didn’t take long to catch on, the kids whether they are in the rooms or in a play area, they look across as soon as they get to the window,” Prescott told ABC News. “They will look all over the building, point and exclaim (惊叫) ‘I found him!’”
Haney, meanwhile, simply enjoys knowing that he can brighten the children’s day and make them forget that they are in hospital for a few minutes. Jason has said over and over again, “All I did this for was to make the kids smile.”
Haney even created a Facebook group where he leaves clues as to where Waldo might be hiding and the children can post photos of their findings. The project has been a huge success, with hundreds of people sharing photos of Waldo and happy parents thanking Haney for making an otherwise difficult visit to the hospital just that little bit more enjoyable.
24. Why did Jason Haney create the Waldo cutout
A. To bring joy to sick kids in the nearby hospital.
B. To make his construction site more famous.
C. To practice his hobby of art with his daughter.
D. To attract more attention to the hospital’s work.
25. What can we learn about the Waldo game from paragraph 3
A. The kids need to find Waldo once a week.
B. The game ends when all kids find Waldo.
C. The game is kept going by moving Waldo regularly.
D. The workers hide Waldo in the same place every day.
26. What can be inferred from the last two paragraphs
A. Parents think the Waldo project makes hospital stays easier for kids.
B. Haney’s next project will be more successful than the Waldo one.
C. The Facebook group is only used to share hints about Waldo’s location.
D. Haney posted photos online to encourage the ill kids.
27. Which of the following words can best describe Jason Haney
A. Selfless and humorous. B. Kind-hearted and creative.
C. Shy and quiet. D. Considerate and serious.
【答案】24. A 25. C 26. A 27. B
C
Urban green spaces have long been tied to better public health, but limited city budgets often leave parks overgrown and underused. A groundbreaking study published in Urban Health Journal points to an unexpected solution gaining traction across North America: community-run gardens. These grassroots projects, where residents collectively tend plots of land, are proving to be both cost-effective and socially reformed.
Researchers tracked 27 community gardens in Toronto over three years, documenting measurable benefits. Nearby households reported 31% fewer cases of anxiety compared to neighborhoods without such gardens, while local children showed 24% higher levels of physical activity — likely due to regular outdoor play among the plots. The gardens, typically filled with tomato vines, sunflower patches, and public tool sheds, also boosted stronger social bonds: 78% of participants cited “making new friends” as a key benefit, reducing feelings of loneliness in densely populated areas.
These initiatives thrive (蓬勃发展) on minimal funding. Most start with funds under $2,000, relying on donated soil, recycled wooden planters, and volunteer labor. The Toronto Green Space Alliance, which manages 15 of these sites, notes that maintenance costs average just $300 annually per garden — far cheaper than the $12,000 yearly upkeep (维修费) for a small city park.
Yet success isn’t universal. In Vancouver, two gardens saw declining participation after initial enthusiasm, with plots abandoned due to debates over water usage and crop ownership. Despite these challenges, the Alliance plans to fund 12 new gardens in Montreal next year, emphasizing better conflict-resolution training for organizers.
“Cities don’t need million-dollar projects to build healthier communities,” says lead researcher Dr. Elena Marquez. “Sometimes a trowel (小铲子) and a packet of seeds are enough.”
28. The underlined phrase “gaining traction” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______.
A. lacking practical value B. facing severe opposition
C causing widespread debate D. becoming increasingly popular
29. What does the study on Toronto’s community gardens reveal
A. They require large initial investments.
B. They have replaced traditional city parks.
C. They reduce residents’ mental health issues.
D. They only benefit elderly people’s physical health.
30. Why does the author cite the case of Vancouver’s gardens
A. To note weaknesses of community gardens.
B. To tell funding shortages cause project failure.
C. To explain community gardens don’t always succeed.
D. To compare Toronto and Vancouver’s gardening practices.
31. What is the best title of the text
A. Million-dollar Urban Park Projects
B. Urban Nature and Its Many Forms
C. The High Cost of Maintaining Gardens
D. Community Gardens Boosting Urban Health
【答案】28. D 29. C 30. C 31. D
D
When visiting a doctor in the future, you can expect to be accompanied by a virtual version of yourself. This so-called digital twin will be a working model of your body that can be shown on a physician’s computer screen. Updated with your latest vital signs, it will help the doctor make an accurate diagnosis (诊断) and provide personalized treatments for the patients.
No matter how unreal this might seem, the researchers at Queen Mary University of London (QMUL) already use computer simulations (模拟) of the hearts of patients to test different treatments for a heart disorder. It would be far too dangerous to experiment this way on someone’s real heart.
Digital twins are starting to be seen everywhere. They can not only monitor the health of jet engines on airliners, but also help carmakers spend fewer years on the development of new models by simulating test drives and crashes. All this is being powered by recent progress in AI, which gives twins the ability to make predictions about their physical counterparts (对应的事物), and adjust themselves based on new information.
Digital twins make it easier for humans to solve challenging problems, allowing people to have a look into the future. For businesses, this should mean better designs and operations. For society, the promise is also fascinating: personalized health care, and ways to prevent the earth from environmental disasters.
Could these virtual twins go out of control They might if they are programmed badly, or hacked into. Digital twins will take in mountains of data, some of it wrong and much of it raising concerns about privacy. Yet those risks are a natural part of technological progress. The appearance of the digital mirror world will raise new questions, but its potential benefits are already easy to see.
32. Which of the following best describes a digital twin
A. A virtual copy. B. A video game. C. A toy model. D. A medical database.
33. Why do researchers at QMUL use computer simulations of hearts
A. To reduce the time of the heart operation.
B. To use real hearts much more conveniently.
C. To help increase the patients’ recovery rates.
D. To avoid the danger of experimenting on real hearts.
34. How does AI contribute to the development of digital twins
A. It increases the efficiency of simulations through data analysis.
B. It creates accurate digital copies for medical and industrial use.
C. It enables digital twins to predict results and adapt on their own.
D. It improves virtual models by adding real-time monitoring features.
35. What is the author’s overall attitude toward the development of digital twins
A. Cautiously optimistic B. Strongly supportive
C. Clearly critical D. Deeply ambiguous
【答案】32. A 33. D 34. C 35. A
第二节（共5小题；每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
In our fast-paced, interconnected world, we are often encouraged to constantly seek external recognition and build vast social networks. Yet, the most profound and often overlooked relationship is the one we have with ourselves. ____36____
Cultivate mindful self-awareness. ____37____ Instead of reacting automatically or containing feelings, pause and ask, “What am I feeling right now, and why ” This could be through keeping a diary or simply taking a quiet moment during a walk.
____38____ We are often our own harshest critics. Try to speak to yourself with the same kindness and encouragement you would offer a dear friend facing a challenge. When you make a mistake or fall short of a goal, instead of jumping into self-criticism, acknowledge the setback as a part of being human. Treat yourself with patience and understanding, recognizing that imperfection is universal.
Set and honor your boundaries. A crucial part of self-respect is knowing your limits and communicating them clearly. ____39____ By protecting your mental and emotional space, you send a powerful message to yourself that your well-being is a priority.
Nurture your interests and curiosity. Spend quality time with yourself doing things that you genuinely enjoy, independent of others. This could be reading, learning a new skill, exploring nature, or creating art. ____40____ And it can also strengthen the joy of your own company.
Ultimately, the journey to a richer, more real engagement with the world begins in the quiet spaces of our own hearts. By becoming our own best friend, we build an unshakable inner heart. From this place of strength and self-acceptance, we can then extend genuine kindness, understanding and love to the world around us.
A. Practice self-forgiveness.
B. Become our own harshest critics.
C. So, how should we get along with ourselves
D. What should we do to become the best version of ourselves
E. This means regularly checking your own thoughts and emotions.
F. Investing in your own hobbies and passions can build self-esteem.
G. This includes saying “no” to demands that consume your energy beyond your ability.
【答案】36. C 37. E 38. A 39. G 40. F
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
In the summer of 2018, I decided to do a solo expedition (独自探险) across Antarctica. To get some ____41____, I did a two-week training course. I learned all the ____42____: how to camp in the snow, how to pull a sled and what clothing to wear. In October, I flew to Antarctica from Punta Arenas. I’d allowed 70 days, which would make it the longest ____43____ one-way expedition across Antarctica
I only took ____44____. I didn’t even take a hairbrush. The first few days were ____45____. The winds were about 60 mph, and my sled weighed 120kg. Even if the visibility is good, you can’t ____46____ much — it’s a white horizon. I was on the move for 13 to 15 hours a day.
Then, I found the conditions to be much worse. There was more sastrugi (雪脊) and it felt colder. The last 40 hours were really hard. I ____47____ about 14 times every two hours. As a result, I fell behind ____48____. In the end, I ____49____ 922 miles and fell more than 100 miles short of my goal. Towards the end of my trip, a helicopter flew to pick me up. The ____50____ I felt when I saw it in the distance was unbelievable.
It took me a while before I was ____51____ of what I’d achieved, because I had failed to reach my ____52____ goal, but I’ve learned it’s ____53____ to move the goalposts(球门柱). I don’t agree with the idea of conquering (征服) somewhere. You treat places with ____54____ and hope they’ll allow you ____55____ passage.
41. A. donation B. experience C. attention D. rescue
42. A. basics B. risks C. benefits D. aids
43. A. cooperative B. romantic C. unsupported D. abnormal
44. A. companions B. necessities C. cashes D. credits
45. A. pleasant B. calm C. tough D. lucky
46. A. talk B. hear C. feel D. see
47. A. fell over B. dropped out C. looked away D. put up
48. A. fundraising B. supply C. schedule D. homework
49. A. measured B. designed C. searched D. covered
50. A. burden B. relief C. pain D. anxiety
51. A. proud B. skeptical C. shy D. ashamed
52. A. insignificant B. unbearable C. disturbing D. original
53. A. regrettable B. unnecessary C. acceptable D. improper
54. A. respect B. courage C. carelessness D. coldness
55. A. narrow B. safe C. limited D. challenging
【答案】41. B 42. A 43. C 44. B 45. C 46. D 47. A 48. C 49. D 50. B 51. A 52. D 53. C 54. A 55. B
第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Imagine holding an object that holds the shine of the ocean ____56____ the soft light of the moon. This is the wonder of mother-of-pearl inlay (螺钿), an old craft that ____57____ (protect) as cultural heritage. Using the shiny inside part of shells, ____58____ gives out light with hidden colors, artists create works that seem alive.
The making process is like ____59____ quiet dance. Workers first choose shells that shine with natural color. These are cut into thin ____60____ (piece), each shaped to fit part of a pattern. With a special natural glue, they place each piece into a soft painted surface, ____61____ (make) designs like flowers or flying birds. After the surface dries, it is polished until smooth like glass, making the shell pieces look like they are floating on dark water.
When light hits the ____62____ (finish) work, something special happens. The inlaid patterns glow with a soft light. As you move, the colors change ____63____ (gentle), turning from silver-blue to soft pink, like a morning sky caught inside. This living beauty is why people ____64____ (love) mother-of-pearl art for so long.
More than just pretty art, these works carry a deeper message. They show us that true beauty comes _____65_____ working slowly and respecting nature, helping us remember that everything around us has its own story.
【答案】56. and
57. is protected
58. which 59. a
60. pieces 61. making
62. finished
63. gently 64. have loved
65. from
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节（满分15分）
66. 假定你是李华，你校将举办一场以“Our Game, Our Art”为主题的体育文化节。请给你校的交换生Ethan写一封邮件，邀请他参加。内容包括：
1.活动时间、地点；
2.活动内容（比如体操，民族舞等）；
3.邀请他参加的原因。
注意：
1.写作词数应为80左右；
2.请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Dear Ethan,
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
【答案】Dear Ethan,
I hope this e-mail finds you well. On behalf of the Students’ Union, I’m excited to invite you to our school’s Sports and Art Festival under the theme “Our Game, Our Art” this Friday afternoon at the school stadium.
The event will feature a perfect blend of physical and artistic activities. You can enjoy gymnastics performances, demonstrating strength and grace. Besides, you can also appreciate traditional ethnic dance, which will be added by some sport elements, like table tennis.
It’s a wonderful opportunity to experience Chinese campus culture while sharing your own cultural background. We’d be delighted to have you with us!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节（满分25分）
67. 阅读下面材料，根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段，使之构成一篇完整的短文。
In my childhood, I tried many activities, and most of them were chosen by Mom. She would always say, “Join the swim team, Tara. Your sister is a good swimmer, so you should be too.” But she didn’t know that I was really scared of water. Even though I was afraid, I had to do this activity that made me nervous.
Every Saturday was a struggle. I would ask Mom with all my heart not to make me go to the swim meet. But most of the time, I didn’t succeed. When the starting gun went off with a loud sound, I would gather all my courage and strength and jump into the cold water. I would swim as fast as I could to the other side of the pool, but I would always see the other swimmers pass me easily.
But I didn’t give up completely. The reason was my dad. When I finally reached the edge of the pool, tired and defeated, he would be there with a warm, dry towel. He would tell me that he was proud of my hard work. His words and presence were like a life buoy, keeping me going in this uncertain situation.
Then, a big turning point came. Our school orchestra (管弦乐队) came to our class and gave a performance. The drums were just annoying, and the flutes were boring. But when I heard the violin… oh, that was different. It made the most beautiful sound I had ever heard. My heart started to dance with its melody.
For the first time in my life, I was very happy. And what’s more, the orchestra director gave me a permission slip (许可单) for my parents to sign, asking me to try out for the first seat in the community orchestra. This was a new start, a glimmer of hope in a journey that had been full of challenges and uncertainties.
注意：
（1）续写词数应为150左右；
（2）请按如下格式在答题卡的相应位置作答。
Paragraph 1: Tightly holding the permission slip, I ran all the way home after school.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Paragraph 2: Finally came the tryout for the first seat.
____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】
Tightly holding the permission slip, I ran all the way home after school. I burst through the door, eager to share my discovery with my mom. I explained how the violin’s sound had captivated me, and to my surprise, she sensed the genuine passion in my words. With a gentle smile, she signed the slip, giving me her silent blessing to pursue this new path. That evening, I immersed myself in the violin’s world, my fingers exploring its contours, learning its structure. As I practiced, each scale and note became a step in my transformation, from a hesitant swimmer to a budding musician.
Finally came the tryout for the first seat. I stood before the mirror, the violin secure under my chin, feeling the strings resonate with my touch. The notes I played were echoes of my dedication, reflections of the hours I’d spent honing my skills. Stepping into the audition room, I felt the outside world melt away, leaving only the music and my connection to it. The judges’ gazes were upon me. The violin was no longer just an instrument; it was a part of who I was becoming, and as the last note faded, I knew I had found not just a voice, but a new identity. This audition marked my emergence from the challenges of the past into a future filled with potential.

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